EXIN meilleur examen ISO20KF, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ISO20KF
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ISO / IEC 20000 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 116 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Change Management is the most important of the Control processes.
B. Release Management shall be implemented only after the processes Change Management and
Configuration Management have become mature.
C. Release Management, Change Management and Configuration Management are Control processes.
D. There shall be an integrated approach to Change and Configuration Management planning.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following is a best practice for Capacity Management?
A. A Capacity plan documenting the actual performance and the expected requirements should
be produced at least annually.
B. Decisions about service provision should be based on cost effectiveness comparisons.
C. The resilience of the infrastructure components should be measured and included in the Capacity plan.
D. The Service Catalog should be maintained and kept up-to-date.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the added value of a service being delivered?
A. You can specifically define the service by means of a Service Level Agreement (SLA).
B. You do not have the ownership of specific costs and risks in producing the service.
C. You do not have to invest in a process to control it.
D. The outcomes have a lower total cost of ownership than when the value is produced within the
customer organization.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which service changes should be documented in change records?
A. All service changes
B. Formal closure of services
C. Staff recruitment
D. User training
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following tasks is assigned to each process manager?
A. Channeling data to Problem Management
B. Ensuring the process is running effectively and efficiently
C. Following up on Incidents
D. Setting up Service Level Agreements with the users
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the objective of a Management System?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of services
B. To ensure that Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) are defined for all IT services
C. To ensure that new services and changes to services will be deliverable and manageable at the agreed
cost and services quality
D. To provide the policies and the framework that is needed for the effective management and
implementation of all IT services
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following must be included within the Service Management plan?
A. Configuration Item (CI) type
B. Information security controls
C. Return to normal working
D. Tools as appropriate to support the processes
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement below is not a purpose of Supplier Management procedures?
A. That business transactions between all parties are recorded
B. That information on the performance of all suppliers can be observed and acted upon
C. That it is made clear that the supplier cannot subcontract part of the delivered services to the Service
Provider
D. That the suppliers understand their obligation to the Service Provider
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is accreditation in the context of ISO/IEC 20000?
A. The determination of measurement results using defined procedures on the basis of
documented requirements
B. The evaluation of test results to verify compliance with requirements plus confirmation by the
certification body
C. The notification of approved testing and certification bodies with the relevant authority for publication
D. The official recognition by a third party of organizations involved in testing, inspection and certification
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is a benefit of ISO/IEC 20000 certification?
A. It guarantees that all certified IT Service Management processes are at least audited by a registered
certification body once a year.
B. It shows that a company manages IT Services according to an independently audited quality standard.
C. It shows that a company takes quality seriously and that each service is independently
audited before it is being delivered.
D. It shows that the highest possible quality level has been achieved.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the objective of Service Level Management?
A. To define, agree, record and manage levels of service
B. To ensure a sufficient amount of Capacity has been designated in order to achieve agreed service
levels
C. To ensure that agreed service Availabilitycommittments to customers can be met in all
circumstances
D. To establish and maintain good relationships with Customers
Answer: A

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NO.12 The Service Provider should check that the Service Management objectives and the plan are being
achieved. Which of the following items is not measured as part of this monitoring, measuring or review?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. Major non-conformities
C. Problems
D. Resource utilization
Answer: C

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NO.13 An objective of Capacity Management is to ensure that the service provider has, at all times, sufficient
Capacity to meet the current and future agreed demands of the Customer's business needs. What
document is produced to support this objective?
A. Availability Plan
B. Business Resource Plan
C. Capacity Plan
D. Service Management Plan
Answer: C

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NO.14 Availability and Service Continuity Plans need to be developed and reviewed periodically to ensure
that requirements are met as agreed in all circumstances, from normal operations through to a major loss
of service. What is the minimum level of frequency with which these Plans should be developed and
reviewed?
A. At every change to the business environment
B. At least annually
C. At least bi-annually
D. In accordance with the business needs
Answer: B

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NO.15 What shall the Service Level Agreements (SLAs) with the suppliers be aligned with?
A. The Service Level Plans
B. The Service Management Plans
C. The SLAs with the other parties
D. The SLAs with the customers
Answer: D

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NO.16 What is mandatory to define in the Incident Management procedures?
A. The escalation of Incidents
B. The implementation of emergency Changes
C. The recording of deficiencies in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
D. The recording of Problems
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the aspects listed below is included in ISO/IEC 20000?
A. Customer communication
B. Employee motivation
C. Social responsibility
D. Standard products
Answer: A

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NO.18 When a new service is being planned, Service Level Management needs to ensure that existing
performance levels of other IT services will not be unduly impacted. From which process will Service
Level Management require input?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Financial Management for IT Services
D. IT Service Continuity Management
Answer: B

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NO.19 Who conducts the "first party audit"?
A. An external independent organization
B. Customers of the IT Service Management organization
C. Other persons on behalf of the Customer
D. The IT Service Management organization itself
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is Problem Management primarily concerned with?
A. Looking at Security Plans
B. Looking at the cause of Incidents
C. Looking at the Change Plan
D. Looking at the Release Strategy
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: TMPF
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (TMap NEXT Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

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NO.1 Under which circumstance can Exploratory Testing be used effectively?
A. when experienced testers with domain knowledge are available
B. when testing must be as brief as possible on the critical path of the project
C. when critical functionality, failure of which can cause severe damage, must be tested
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which defect has an internal cause that can be solved within the test team?
A. a defect in the test basis
B. a defect in the test specification
C. a defect in the test object
Answer: B

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NO.3 In which Map phase activity does the pre-test take place.?
A. Defining central starting points
B. Intake of the test object
C. Specifying the test object intake
D. Executing (re)tests
Answer: B

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NO.4 See the definition below:
Tests in which the supplying party demonstrates that the product particularly meets the functional and
non-functional specifications and the technical design, among other things.
Of which test level is this the definition?
A. acceptance test
B. development test
C. system test
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is not an advantage of applying a test design technique and recording it in the test
specifications?
A. that the tests are reproducible
B. that the test specifications are transferable
C. that coverage of 100% is achieved
D. that it provides a justified elaboration of the test strategy
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: EX0-115
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (IT Service Management Foundation based on ISO/IEC 20000)
Questions et réponses: 78 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a Configuration Baseline?
A. A benchmark of the service provider's capability
B. A configuration audit report
C. A snapshot of the state of an IT Service or individual Configuration Item (CI) at a point in time
D. The change requests allocated to a release
Answer: C

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NO.2 What has to be included in a well defined process?
A. Expected outcomes
B. Functions
C. Statistical support
D. Timelines
Answer: A

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NO.3 In recent months at a transport company with 1500 desktops, dozens of requests have been received
for expansion of the internal memory because its size has proven to be insufficient.
Which process should have prevented this from happening?
A. Capacity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Availability Management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Different types of events are reported to the Service Desk. Which event is an incident?
A. Information about the rollout of a specific application
B. A notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer
C. A report that the printer is not working
D. A request for the installation of a new bookkeeping package
Answer: C

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NO.5 Quality Management Systems can assist organizations in enhancing what?
A. Customer satisfaction
B. ISO/EC 20000
C. Relationship with third parties
D. Supplier satisfaction
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which process includes the responsibility of recovering the service as quickly as possible?
A. Availability Management
B. IT Service Continuity Management
C. Incident management
D. Problem Management
Answer: C

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NO.7 What would increase the amount of detail in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?
A. Increasing the scope of the CMDB
B. Increasing the number of attributes of each Configuration Item (CI) in the CMDB
C. Increasing the number of records in the CMDB
D. Increasing the use of the CMDB
Answer: B

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NO.8 One of the activities of Problem Management is the analysis of historical Incident and Problem data held
in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB) in order to understand trends.
Which aspect of Problem Management accomplishes this?
A. Error Control
B. Identification of root causes
C. Proactive Problem Management
D. Problem Control
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is known as a temporary solution that enables the user to continue working?
A. Known Error
B. Request For Change (RFC)
C. Service Request
D. Workaround
Answer: D

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NO.10 Deming proposed a system of continuous improvement.
Which four activities does this system involve?
A. Plan. Do. Check and Act
B. Plan. Do. Evaluate and Act
C. Plan. Perform. Audit and Improve
D. Plan. Perform. Evaluate and Act
Answer: A

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NO.11 Through which process does the implementation of new or changed services, including closure of a
service, need to be planned and approved.?
A. Business Relationship Management
B. Change Management
C. Release Management
D. Service Level Management
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: SCNS-EN
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense Exam)
Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic
in Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.2 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and
you are examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts
combined together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.3 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a
Windows
Server 2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

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NO.4 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to
zero,
what type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.5 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some
clients in the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for
internal use for APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 / 4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 / 8
D. 169.254.0.0 / 0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-080
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Storage - SAN Implementation)
Questions et réponses: 210 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Concurrent SRDF has the capability of dynamically defining relationships between
SRDF Source (R1) and Target (R2) devices
B. Concurrent SRDF has the ability to use both RAF processors for Fibre Channel host
connections
C. Concurrent SRDF enables SRDF between Symmetrix systems using Fibre Channel
switches
D. With concurrent SRDF, a single SRDF Source device (R1) can be simultaneously
paired with two SRDF Target devices (R2)
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the first step of the copy on first write mechanism used with Reserved LUN Pool, the
host sends a write request to the Source LUN. What is the next step?
A. The snapshot pointer is changed to chunk in Reserved LUN Pool
B. The original Source LUN data chunk is written to Reserved LUN Pool
C. The snapshot pointer writes to Reserved LUN Pool
D. The host data is written to Source LUN
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the default percentage of cache capacity at which high water mark cache flushing
is initiated in a CLARiiON system?
A. 80%
B. 92%
C. 55%
D. 75%
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following web interfaces can be used to manage standalone M-Series
switches?
A. Web interface is not available
B. EWS
C. Web Tools
D. Fabric Manager
Answer: B

EMC   E20-080   E20-080

NO.5 In the first step of a read cache miss operation on a Symmetrix, the host sends a read
request. What is the next step?
A. The Channel Director checks the track table
B. The Channel Director sends data to the host
C. The Disk Director retrieves data
D. The Disk Director sends data to the host
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.6 Which of the following statements best describes a Fan-out Ratio for a SAN attached
array?
A. The qualified maximum number of initiators that can access a single Target port
through a SAN
B. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be attached to an initiator
port in a SAN
C. The qualified maximum number of storage ports that can be direct attached to a HBA
port in a SAN
D. The maximum number of HBA and storage ports that can be contained in a zone on a
switch
Answer: A

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NO.7 XXXX .com has a primary CX600 array and a secondary CX400 array. XXXX .com
wants to do data backup on the secondary site while the applications are still running on
the primary site. How can XXXX .com accomplish this goal?
A. Array types are not compatible
B. Admsnap and PowerPath
C. MirrorView and SnapView
D. MirrorView and Navisphere CLI
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is true?
A. ControlCenter agent activity is policy-based and user-defined
B. ControlCenter agents can only be installed on the Repository server
C. All ControlCenter agents communicate with each other
D. ControlCenter agents tier handles data presentation
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter storage agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Legato Networker
C. CLARiiON
D. Windows 2000 disk
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following components are required in order to enable write caching in a
CLARiiON array?
A. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 4 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
B. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
C. 2 power supplies, 4 storage processors, 2 LCC cards and at least one standby power
supply
D. 2 power supplies, 2 storage processors, 2 DAE shelves and at least one standby power
supply
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following is not a CLARiiON High Availability feature?
A. Dual consoles
B. Dual power supplies
C. Dual ported drives
D. Dual storage processors
E. Dual LCCs
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following statements is true regarding active zone sets in ControlCenter?
A. Associate an active zone set with multiple fabrics or VSANs at once.
B. Place a copy of an active zone set in the Planned Zone Sets folder for
activation/modification.
C. Directly modify an active zone set.
D. Directly delete an active zone set.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two of the following can you use to allocate CLARiiON LUNs to a server?
(Choose two.)
A. Connectrix Manager
B. TimerFinder
C. ESN Manager
D. Navisphere Manager
E. ControlCenter
F. TimeFinder/Snap
Answer: D,E

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NO.14 Which two of the following statements are features of CLARiiON Access Logix?
(Choose two.)
A. LUN masking requires the use of storage groups
B. The storage processors in the array do not share Access Logix databases
C. Hosts need to be connected to the storage group to perform LUN masking
D. Storage groups cannot be destroyed once created
Answer: A,C

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NO.15 What is the maximum number of CLARiiON Source systems that can be mirrored to one
Target system?
A. 16
B. 4
C. 2
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following statements best describes ControlCenter Autofixes?
A. Commands that can be run to fix a problem notification from an alert
B. Rules containing all of the general criteria for storage allocation requests
C. Groups of storage devices that SPS will search for available storage
D. A collection of Symmetrix devices used to query status and impart control operations
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements represents a feature of SnapView Clones?
A. Data can be made available to second host immediately; no synchronization required
B. Copy uses a fraction of Source LUN size
C. Copy requires same space as Source LUN
D. Data copy may be used as Source for backup application running on first host
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following Windows-based applications in ControlCenter displays
Symmetrix performance for analysis?
A. Symmetrix Manager
B. StorageScope
C. TimeFinder/SRDF QoS
D. Performance Manager
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following protocols do open systems hosts use to access storage in Fibre
Channel SANs?
A. SCSI
B. ESCON
C. SNMP
D. FICON
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the purpose of the Performance Manager in ControlCenter?
A. It automatically allocates storage device to hosts
B. It splits and establishes with standard and Business Continuance Volume (BCV)
devices
C. It reports key historical performance data
D. It converts device types between standard and BCV
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following products can be used to create Logical Volumes on a Symmetrix
system?
A. ControlCenter Symmetrix Manager
B. VisualSRM
C. ControlCenter Automated Resource Manager
D. ControlCenter StorageScope
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which two of the following are features of TimeFinder/Mirror Clone? (Choose two.)
A. Utilizes VDEVs
B. Copy on access to allow for instant access to data
C. Point in time copy of Standard or BCV device
D. Requires only a small fraction of Source volume capacity
Answer: B,C

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NO.23 Which two of the following are Celerra Replicator features?
A. Point-in-time copy over an IP network
B. Only sends Control Station configuration parameters over the IP network
C. Synchronous data recovery
D. Only sends changed data over the IP network
Answer: A,D

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NO.24 Which two of the following are iSCSI naming conventions? (Choose two.)
A. EUI
B. iQN
C. iSNS
D. DNS
Answer: A,B

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NO.25 Which of the following Celerra replication options offers synchronous replication over
campus distances for disaster recovery?
A. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/NearCopy
B. TimeFinder/FS SnapSure
C. TimeFinder/FS Snapcopy
D. TimeFinder/FS SRDF/FarCopy
Answer: A

EMC   E20-080   E20-080   E20-080

NO.26 Which of the following are configuration options on the NS600 Data Movers? (Choose
two.)
A. One Data Mover is primary, and one acts as a standby
B. All four (4) Data Movers are primary
C. Both Data Movers are primary
D. One Data Mover acts as a standby for the other three (3) Data Movers
Answer: A,C

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NO.27 Which of the following statements represents a feature of file level host storage access?
A. The host sees Logical Volumes as Physical Volumes
B. Data is accessed using NFS, CIFS, and FTP
C. The host typically has exclusive access to Logical Volumes
D. The storage system presents LUNs to hosts
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following sequences would ensure that an I/O is completed when a HBA on
a host with PowerPath fails when the I/O is being driven through it?
A. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, drives I/O through an alternate path, and takes the
failed path offline
B. PowerPath receives I/O timeout, takes the failed path offline and drives I/O through an
alternate path
C. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, drives I/O through an alternate path, and
receives I/O timeout
D. PowerPath takes the failed path offline, receives I/O timeout and drives I/O through an
alternate path
Answer: B

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NO.29 What is the purpose of storage groups in a CLARiiON storage array?
A. LUN expansion
B. LUN mirroring
C. LUN groups
D. LUN masking
Answer: D

EMC   E20-080   E20-080 examen   E20-080   E20-080

NO.30 Which of the following is monitored by the ControlCenter SAN agent?
A. Brocade switch
B. Windows 2000 disk
C. Legato Networker
D. CLARiiON
Answer: A

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L'avènement de la certification EMC pratique d'examen E20-538 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-538
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Network Attached Storage (NAS) Specialist Exam for Storage Administrators)
Questions et réponses: 115 Q&As

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NO.1 A site administrator would like to have file system quota implemented. However, the administrator is
worried about users who create symbolic links.
How can symbolic links be excluded from the file system quota?
A. Use group and user quotas together
B. Use the filesize policy
C. Use the block policy
D. Use the excl option when configuring the quota
Answer: B

EMC   E20-538   E20-538   E20-538 examen

NO.2 You enter the following command: nas_fs -create size=3M pool=clar_r5_economy
What will be the result?
A. The file system is created with a default file system name.
B. The file system and a mountpoint are created.
C. Only the mountpoint is created.
D. The file system is not created.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Management asks you to set quota limits on a directory tree.
They want the default set to 500 MB with a possible overhead of 20%. They want to enforce these limits
on the sum of the logical size of objects in that quota tree. What is part of the correct answer?
A. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the Data Mover.
B. Set the hard limit to 600 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
C. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the file size quota policy on the file system.
D. Set the hard limit to 500 MB, and set the blocksize quota policy.
Answer: A

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NO.4 A network administrator needs to create a trunk on a Data Mover from dissimilar physical network
devices.
What networking configuration should be used to accomplish this?
A. LACP
B. Fail Safe Network
C. EtherChannel
D. SNMP
Answer: C

certification EMC   E20-538   E20-538

NO.5 Which command would successfully extend a Data Mover root file system?
A. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
B. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
C. as root issue /nas/sbin/rootnas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2K pool=clar_r5_performance
D. as nasadmin issue nas_fs -xtend root_fs_2 size=2G pool=clar_r5_performance
Answer: A

EMC   E20-538   E20-538   E20-538   E20-538

NO.6 A site administrator needs to disable user and group quotas. What happens to the existing quota
configuration and metadata?
A. Maintained
B. Enforced
C. Deleted
D. Reset
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are creating an auto-extend file system. What would happen if you leave the Maximum Capacity
option empty?
A. File system would grow to the pool capacity limit.
B. Data would be overwritten.
C. File system would fail to auto-extend.
D. Write I/Os would be saved in cache until more space is added.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An administrator configured Data Mover network devices to transmit frames on all links for redundancy.
Which network configuration was used to accomplish this.?
A. LACP
B. Proxy ARP
C. Ethernet channel
D. RARP
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are asked by management to create a project directory and track the individual user consumption
in this directory using Celerra quota features. No limits should be enforced.
What would be part of an appropriate procedure to satisfy this requirement?
A. Set up a user quota on the share; specify the limits with the keyword "none" in the CLI
B. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; set up a user quota on the quota tree; specify the limits for the
tree quota and user quota with a value of zero in the GUI
C. Set up a tree quota on the new directory; leave the two fields specifying the limits for the quota tree and
the user quota blank in the Unisphere GUI
D. Set up a user quota on the file system (accommodating the new directory); specify the limits with the
keyword "none" in the GUI
Answer: C

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NO.10 A system administrator is trying to create a non-root file system of type UxFS, on a metavolume. What is
the minimum size to create the file system?
A. 4 GB
B. 1 MB
C. 2 GB
D. 2 MB
Answer: D

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NO.11 You are running out of capacity on your Celerra, and additional storage is already on order. Meanwhile,
which quota configuration would track user consumption?
A. User quotas on the file system
B. Group quotas on the tree
C. Tree quotas on the file system
D. User quotas on the tree
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which conditions must be met before tree quotas can be enabled?
A. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must already exist.
B. File system and parent directories must exist, but the parent directory on which the tree quota is to be
applied must not exist.
C. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be populated with data.
D. Tree directory structure to be quoted must be at the root of the file system.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is a minimum requirement when creating a file system using Manual Volume Management?
A. Metavolume
B. Mirror volume
C. Sliced volumes
D. Striped volumes
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement describes the public network connection of a Celerra with a single Control Station?
A. Comprised of a single physical Ethernet connection
B. Is formed from dual redundant physical Ethernet connections
C. Comprised of a virtual Ethernet EtherChannel connection
D. Is formed from a virtual Ethernet LACP connection
Answer: A

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NO.15 When a Celerra quota is turned off, how does that affect the existing user and group quota information?
A. User and group quota statistics are deleted.
B. Group statistics are retained and user statistics are not.
C. User and group statistics are retained.
D. User statistics are retained and group statistics are not.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-805
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Storage and Information Infrastructure Expert Exam for Techno)
Questions et réponses: 125 Q&As

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NO.1 Which disaster recovery solution would best fit the customer s needs for the VMFS datastores?
A. RecoverPoint/SE and VMware Site Recovery Manager
B. Replicator with VMware Site Recovery Manager
C. SRDF with VMware Site Recovery Manager
D. MirrorView/A with VMware Site Recovery Manager
Answer: A

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NO.2 What would you recommend to help ease the workload on the customer s support staff?
A. Provide Remote Operations Services
B. Upgrade the Advanced Management Pod (AMP) to an HA AMP
C. Implement an IP aggregation solution
D. Implement Vblock Traffic Planes
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805
Topic 5, Scenario 17
Refer to the Exhibit.
A small hospital has a three-tier web application that manages the disbursement of medicine to patients.
Key steps in the process include:
-A doctor at the hospital prescribes medicines to a patient using a handheld device.
-The handheld device connects to the prescription application server through a secure connection
-The application authenticates the doctor's credentials.
-A database records the patient number, doctor's name, and prescribed medicine and dose.
-The prescription order is crosschecked with the patient s history. (That history is entered into a separate
application and database when the patient is admitted to the hospital.)
-If no problems are detected, the order is sent as an email to the hospital pharmacy.
-The pharmacy dispenses the medicine, and prints a label that is crosschecked by the nurse before the
medicine is administered to the patient.
This application, and all applications with which it communicates, must always be available so that
medicine can be given to patients. This means that any problems with the hospital network, application
servers, database servers, or storage arrays must be identified and resolved immediately.

NO.3 The Security Operations team would like a way to quickly mitigate security vulnerabilities that are
reported by networking equipment vendors.
Which solution should be used to identify hospital equipment that is affected by these vulnerabilities?
A. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Network Advisor
B. EMC Ionix Network Configuration Manager Report Advisor
C. RSA enVision
D. Application Discovery Manager
Answer: A

EMC   E20-805   E20-805   E20-805

NO.4 A new VMware customer would like to understand RecoverPoint s additional DR protection levels for
their virtual machines.
What design alterations should you propose?
A. Set up the ESX servers by using a CLR protection method and VMware s SRM functionality for
automated DR response.
B. Implement VMware SRM with the existing CDP configuration to provide automated local recovery.
C. Implement RecoverPoint CDP protection and augment the CDP copy with CLARiiON SnapView
technology.
D. Implement VMware fault tolerance on each VM between the two sites.
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-805   E20-805   E20-805 examen
Topic 2, Scenario 21
Refer to the Exhibit.
A customer is migrating from their present DAS solution to a new VNX array. As part of the migration, you
have been tasked with sizing the Microsoft Exchange 2010 environment, specifically sizing the
appropriate IOPS profile for the Exchange mailbox servers.
The customer has profiled the environment and provided you with the data in the exhibit. Each mailbox
store contains 100-120 heavy profile users, and each server has 10-12 mailbox stores. Mailbox limits
have been put in place at 500 MB per mailbox. Deleted item retention has been left at default values.

NO.5 As part of a legal discovery request, the customer must make available a functioning copy of the SQL
environment as it existed at the time of the TLog3 backups. What would be the most efficient way to
restore the SQL server to that point to make the data available?
A. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just before TLog3 backups were completed 2 -
Roll SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
B. 1 - Restore the Monday SQL Server backup 2 - Apply the Tuesday SQL differential backup 3 - Roll SQL
forward by applying TLog3 backups
C. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog3 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL backward by subtracting TLog4 backups
D. 1 - Use RM to restore the data to the replica created just after TLog2 backups were completed 2 - Roll
SQL forward by applying TLog3 backups
Answer: A

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NO.6 How can you leverage the Replication Manager (RM) infrastructure to securely provide copies of
production SQL data to the software development team?
A. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to schedule their own replications.
B. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to schedule their own
replications.
C. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Through RM, provide these users with
access only to specific SQL LUNs. Allow them to create their own replication jobs.
D. Add members from the development team to the RM user list. Allow them to create their own
replication jobs.
Answer: A

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NO.7 How would you justify the use of CLARiiON splitters in your design.?
A. To avoid an excessive number of ITLs created on the SANTap splitter
B. To take advantage of the VMware vCenter integration for protected virtual machines
C. To minimize the required hardware purchases if SANTap was used for all splitting
D. To separate the splitter load to reduce the expected high load on the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.8 Performance is a major factor in the deployment for the customer. The customer also mentions the
need for a backup solution that minimizes the impact to production. Furthermore, the customer wants
frequent datastore checks to validate integrity.
Which solution supports the customer's goals?
A. Use Replication Manager VSS integration and a VNX clone to create a copy of the production
LUN.
Perform regular database checks against the copy.
B. Use Replication Manager and VNX Snap to create a space-efficient copy.
Perform regular database checks using eseutil.
C. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a VNX clone.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
D. Use NetWorker PowerSnap to create a space-efficient copy with VNX Snap.
Perform regular database checks with eseutil.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which tool helps in analyzing the Exchange environment and provides reports on how the environment
compares with current best practices in deploying the Exchange environment?
A. ExBPA
B. Microsoft Windows Performance Monitor
C. loadsim
D. System Attendant
Answer: A

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NO.10 The customer wants to create application-consistent copies of Exchange 2010 and SharePoint 2007
data in a CLR configuration.
What RecoverPoint features would help the customer meet this requirement?
A. KVSS and VDI integration utilities
B. KVSS and Oracle integration utilities
C. SQLSNAP and VDI integration utilities
D. SQLSNAP and TimeFinder integration utilities
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which Vblock offering is most appropriate in this scenario?
A. Vblock 0
B. Vblock 1
C. Vblock 1U
D. Vblock 2
Answer: C

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NO.12 What should be done to throttle the amount of data being sent over the T3 line when new servers are
brought under RecoverPoint control?
A. Use the compression slider settings for best compression within the cluster
B. Use the balance_load CLI commands to distribute the CGs across the RPAs in the cluster evenly
C. Use the compression slider settings for best performance within the cluster
D. Use a combination of Distributed Consistency Group and bandwidth limits on the Oracle CGs in the
cluster
Answer: A

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NO.13 Topic 1, Scenario 27
Refer to the Exhibit.
A financial institution is implementing a disaster recovery (DR) solution for their key Oracle databases and
other critical data. RecoverPoint has been chosen as the replication technology to use for the DR solution.
For maximum protection, the replication uses CLR for all Oracle systems; CRR is used for all other data.
The production site uses Sun servers for the Oracle servers and Microsoft Windows Server 2008 hosts for
all other data repositories. Storage arrays for the Oracle servers are Symmetrix arrays. All other data and
business departments store their data on CLARiiON CX4 arrays.
Recently, the human resources and finance departments were migrated to the DMX to enhance security
and performance requirements.
This company also plans to bring in a new acquisition with AIX and VMware servers in the next six months.
The AIX servers will be placed on DMX storage and the VMware servers will be placed on CLARiiON
storage. Both are slated for CDP protection.
The DR site is located 2,500 km away from the production site. A dedicated T3 WAN link runs at 44 Mb/s.
Management and replication traffic will use separate VLANs. Each site contains eight RecoverPoint
appliances (RPAs) to maximize the performance and fault-tolerance business requirements. SANTap is
used for all Oracle splitting, and CX splitters are used for all other data.
To support the actual replication needs, 12 group sets were created to support the consistency within the
Oracle consistency groups. The policies on these sets include an RPO of 15 minutes.
The remainder of the data uses 54 consistency groups with an RPO of two hours.
1.What should be done to improve the performance of the WAN link for replication?
A. Enable QoS for the VLAN with RecoverPoint traffic
B. Set the link speed on the RPA to "max throughput"
C. Enable QoS on the Oracle consistency groups
D. Configure EtherChannel Link Aggregation for use with the WAN link
Answer: A

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NO.14 Your customer has an RPO of five hours for accounts receivables during the business hours of 8 a.m.
to 6 p.m. The customer's requirement is that a tape copy of a SQL level backup be made to match each
five-hour RPO mark. The creation of the SQL level tape copy must not compromise production server
performance.
To achieve these goals, Step 1 is to use Replication Manager (RM) to create a snapshot at noon and at 5
p.m.
What other steps are required?
A. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
B. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Activate the database Step 4 - Perform a
SQL-level backup
C. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the mount server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
D. Step 2 - Mount the snap to the same server Step 3 - Perform backup of the SQL directories
Answer: A

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Topic 4, Scenario 15
A midsized company wants to implement a highly integrated IT infrastructure including storage, network,
compute, and management software resources.
The IT executives think they spend too much time and effort today building, testing, and optimizing
individual components in their infrastructure. They hope to consolidate their existing server-based VDI
environment with 950 desktops, 1000 Microsoft Exchange mailboxes, and homegrown Linuxbased
applications onto a virtualized infrastructure. The goal is to reduce the current costs of their aging best of
breed
HP, Juniper, Brocade, NetApp, and CLARiiON infrastructure.
The company wants the solution to have the following capabilities:
-Built-in high availability and redundancy
-Offsite disaster recovery with automated failover
-Architectural predictability
-Optimized storage, compute, and network
-Predictable and efficient power and cooling usage
-Calculable VM scaling
-Ease of deployment and use
-Rapid provisioning capabilities
-Simplified management
You have recommended implementing cloud services using Vblock architecture.

NO.15 You have planned to implement Replication Manager in this environment to manage the backup
requirements.
According to EMC best practices, what prerequisite should you consider?
A. Circular logging must be disabled.
B. Circular logging must be enabled.
C. Transaction logs and database files must be located on the same volume.
D. "Transaction Log location:" and System path location:" for each storage group must be different
Answer: A

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Topic 3, Scenario 13
Refer to the Exhibit.
Your customer s SQL Server environment uses native SQL backup including more granular backups such
as differential backup, as well as transaction logs, to enhance the recovery solution built into the SQL
Server.
This customer also has a software development team that currently updates the development SQL
databases from the nightly production backups. All SQL environments are hosted on VNX iSCSI LUNs.
You propose creating replicas using VNX snaps, as shown in the exhibit. Your proposal includes the
implementation of Replication Manager in this environment.

NO.16 Which utility should you recommend to the customer to assist in migrating to the proposed
infrastructure?
A. VMware vCenter Converter
B. VMware Storage vMotion
C. SAN Copy
D. VMware vMotion
Answer: A

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NO.17 Click the calculator icon in the upper left corner of the screen.
According to EMC best practices, what is the minimum number of RAID 1 protected 15,000 rpm spindles
needed (155 IOPS) to support the performance profile of the Microsoft Exchange database volumes?
A. 8
B. 12
C. 14
D. 18
Answer: D

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NO.18 How will this solution enable the customer to meet their cost savings objectives?
A. The new infrastructure will dramatically reduce implementation, testing and management efforts.
B. The new infrastructure will provide a centralized, multitenant logical architecture.
C. vStorage APIs will offload work from the hosts, allowing the hosts to scale more efficiently.
D. The highly available architecture with automated remote replication will reduce the frequency and cost
of downtime.
Answer: A

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NO.19 After three months of operations, the Monday SQL full backup is consistently running longer than the
defined backup window. For compliance purposes a tape backup must be created every Monday.
What would be the most secure way to meet the backup window with the least impact to existing
processes?
A. Change the schedule of the baseline snapshot to run before the Monday SQL full backup. Create the
tape copy from the baseline snapshot.
B. Change the Monday SQL full backup to a differential backup. Copy the differential backup to tape. Run
a SQL full backup only once a month.
C. Change the Monday SQL full backup to back up to a new CIFS share in the VNX. Use NDMP to create
a tape copy from the CIFS share.
D. Change the drive count to increase the aggregate performance of the database so that the Monday
SQL full backup runs faster.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have been asked to design a long-distance replication solution with MirrorView/S. You want to
simulate this Exchange environment and gather the baseline 200 km performance data and additional
simul-ations to perform failover testing.
Which tool should you use?
A. loadgen
B. loadsim
C. EPA
D. JetStress
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: E20-390
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers )
Questions et réponses: 333 Q&As

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NO.1 Which utility on a Windows server can be used to view the HBA WWN details?
A. Unisphere Host Agent
B. Unisphere Server Utility
C. HBAnywhere
D. Device Manager
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are the severity levels available with Unisphere event notifications?
A. Critical and Informational
B. High and Low
C. Critical and Low
D. High and Warning
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the fan-in ratio for MirrorView/A?
A. 1: 1
B. 2: 1
C. 4: 1
D. 8: 1
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which VNX feature is used to reclaim unused storage space?
A. LUN migration
B. LUN shrink
C. Thin provisioning
D. RAID group defragment
Answer: B

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NO.5 The preferred path to your VMware ESX host failed. Which native multi-pathing policy will revert to the
preferred path when it is restored?
A. Fixed only
B. MRU only
C. Round-robin
D. Bath Fixed and MRU
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator exports a newly created file system and finds two directories, called etc and
lost+found. The administrator does not want these directions to appear in the export.
What should the administrator do to address this issue?
A. The administrator should delete the directories
B. Create a subdirectory below the root of the file system and export it
C. Nothing, this is normal and these two directories will show in all exports
D. The administrator should change the attribute of these directories to hidden
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement correctly describes a benefit of using a Virtual Data Mover (VDM)?
A. It supports the separation of CIFS servers and their shares
B. It enables the replication of NFS exports
C. It can be configured as a standby for failover.
D. It provides security for users in multi-protocol environments
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are planning to add a new DAE to a VNX storage system. Doing so will exceed the supported total
drive count by four drives. What impact will this have on the operation of the VNX system?
A. The DAE will be recognized but four drive slots will not function.
B. All slots on the DAE will be available for use.
C. Connecting the new DAE will take the bus offline.
D. The DAE can be physically connected, but will not be available.
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a VNX array with FAST VP enabled, what is the size of the data slice (chunk) that can be relocated
between tiers?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 5 GB
D. 10 GB
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator tries to modify the quota settings on a CIFS share from a Windows Server 2003 host,
but the Quota tab does not exist in the network drive properties. What could be a possible cause?
A. Quotas can be managed only with Windows Server 2008
B. The user does not have administrator privileges on this share
C. Exporting is implemented at the file system subdirectory level on VNX OE for File.
D. Windows users cannot modify the quota settings
Answer: C

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NO.11 If a source LUN is trespassed, what happens to a fractured clone LUN?
A. Neither the clone LUN nor the fracture logs will be acquired by the peer SP
B. The peer SP acquires the fracture logs.
C. The peer SP acquires both the clone LUN and the fracture logs.
D. The peer SP acquires the clone LUN.
Answer: B

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NO.12 An administrator has finished configuring the zoning on their MDS-series switch and issues the
following command: zoneset activate name ActiveZS vsan 100
What happens?
A. Zoneset ActiveZS is activated on VSAN 100
B. Zoneset ActiveZS is created on VSAN 100
C. VSAN 100 is created and activated.
D. VSAN 100 is named ActiveZS
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CLI command displays the IP configuration of each Data Mover?
A. server_ifconfig
B. /sbin/ifconfig
C. server_sysconfig
D. server_devconfig
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which Linux distribution supports both MPFS and pNFS.?
A. CentOS
B. RedHat
C. Fedora
D. Debian
Answer: B

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NO.15 Where in Unisphere do you assign FAST Cache to LUNs?
A. At the LUN level under a RAID group
B. At the LUN level under a storage pool
C. Under FAST Cache system properties
D. Under the Advanced tab of RAIDGROUP Properties
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the length of RSA keys used to encrypt and decrypt network traffic in a VNX environment?
A. 2048 bytes
B. 1024 bits
C. 1024 bytes
D. 2048 bits
Answer: D

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NO.17 A user is creating a dynamic disk on a Windows host. The first disk is fully utilized. Writes continue to
the next disk. Which volume type did they select?
A. Striped
B. Spanned
C. RAID 5
D. Mirrored
Answer: B

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of Fibre Channel initiator ports, per Linux host, supported by VNX for
Block?
A. 8
B. 4
C. 16
D. 32
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which LDAP username format is correct for CLI authentication on a VNX system?
A. <username>
B. <username>@FQDN
C. <domain>\<username>
D. <username>.FGDN
Answer: B

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NO.20 How does the VNX handle LUN ownership changes so that the access path to the LUN is available to
both SPs simultaneously?
A. By the host software being aware of SP ownership
B. By the SPs sharing ownership of the LUNs
C. By using ALUA Failover Mode
D. By the LUN being trespassed.
Answer: C

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