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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y21
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Core Competencies)
Questions et réponses: 79 Q&As

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NO.1 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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NO.4 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.6 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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NO.7 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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NO.8 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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NO.12 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.13 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.16 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.17 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.20 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.21 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.22 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

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NO.23 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.25 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.26 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.27 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.29 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.30 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP StorageWorks MASE 2088 Delta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 160 Q&As

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NO.1 Under ideal operating conditions, what is the maximum supported, long-wave transceiver distance with
B or C-Series Switches and 4Gb SFPs?
A: 4km
B: 10km
C: 35km
D: 100km
Correct Answers: B

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NO.2 You are merging two fabrics and receive a fabric segmentation error that indicates the definition of a
zone object in one fabric is different from its definition in the other fabric. What can cause this error?
A: duplicate IDs
B: zone type mismatch
C: zone content mismatch
D: zone configuration mismatch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.3 Which password authentication service can be used on Brocade switches in addition to the local switch
database?
A: NIS
B: LDAP
C: RADIUS
D: Kerberos
Correct Answers: C

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NO.4 In B-Series virtual fabrics, which feature allows you to access devices in another virtual fabric?
A: Inter-VSAN Routing
B: Inter-Fabric Routing
C: Cross-VSAN Routing
D: Cross-Fabric Routing
Correct Answers: B

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NO.5 Which zoning enforcement types do Fibre Channel switches provide to protect against unauthorized
access? (Select two.)
A:access authorization
B:port-zoning authentication
C:RADIUS server authentication
D:directory access authorization
E:soft-plus zoning by login authentication
Correct Answers: A, E

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NO.6 How can you improve iSCSI host performance in a SAN?
A: Upgrade to CommandView 7.
B: Use NICs with TOE (TCP/IP Offload Engine).
C: Enable NPIV (N_Port ID Virtualization) support.
D: Disable SLP (Service Location Protocol) Service Agent.
Correct Answers: B

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NO.7 Which SAN services are provided by the HP StorageWorks 400 Multi-Protocol Router (MPR)? (Select
two.)
A:ISL zoning
B:FCIP tunneling
C:IP-IP subnet routing
D:iSCSI-FC translation
E:FC-FC subnet routing
Correct Answers: B, E

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NO.8 How many drives can be held by the M6412 drive shelf?
A: 8
B: 12
C: 14
D: 16
Correct Answers: B

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NO.9 Brocade Secure Fabric OS is running on a fabric with four switches. If you are logged in to one of the
switches and change the Admin password, which switch or switches will have the password changed?
A: all the switches
B: LDAP-enabled switches only
C: only the switch you are logged in to
D: only switches connected to the Ethernet
Correct Answers: A

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NO.10 What is an advantage of iSCSI when compared to Fibre Channel?
A: less protocol overhead
B: no additional customer knowledge required
C: easily provisioned through HP Storage Essentials SRM
D: existing Ethernet infrastructure can be used to create a SAN
Correct Answers: D

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NO.11 What are benefits of logical fabrics? (Select three.)
A:port count reduction
B:easier administration
C:fabric service isolation
D:increased performance
E:fault propagation minimization
F:device sharing across logical fabrics
Correct Answers: C, E, F

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NO.12 John, your customer, has a SAN built on B-Series switches. He calls you because he heard about a
new feature which allows him to distribute administrator responsibilities among his staff. After research,
what is your recommendation to John?
A: Upgrade to Secure Fabric OS version 5.2.
B: Purchase the Advanced Administration license.
C: Implement Distributed Administration through Fabric Manager.
D: Implement Admin Domains available since Fabric OS version 5.2.
Correct Answers: D

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NO.13 Where do you find the essential security elements in B-Series Fibre Channel switches running
firmware v5.3.x?
A: base Fabric OS
B: Secure Fabric OS
C: ISL Trunking manager
D: switch port web interface
Correct Answers: A

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NO.14 Which tool helps you design a SAN that includes HP Blade servers?
A: SANsurfer
B: SAN Visibility
C: SAN Designer
D: Blade Designer
Correct Answers: C

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NO.15 A customer wants to replicate data between two sites 200 km apart. Which HP SAN product would you
recommend?
A: MPX 100
B: MPX 110
C: MPR 100
D: MPR 110
Correct Answers: B

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NO.16 A customer decides on HP c-Class BladeSystem as a corporate standard for servers. You must
implement SAN integration of the blades into a very large fabric. The customer is concerned about the
maximum switch count. Which interconnects will you recommend? (Select two.)
A:QLogic 4Gb Fabric Switch
B:Cisco MDS 9124e Fabric Switch
C:Emulex 4Gb Advanced SAN Switch
D:HP 4Gb Virtual Connect Fibre Channel Module
E:Brocade 4Gb SAN Switch in Access Gateway mode
Correct Answers: D, E

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NO.17 Which application can be used to set up network shares and provision iSCSI storage?
A: Brocade Fabric Manager
B: HP Data Protector Express
C: HP CommandView EVA 7.0
D: HP All-in-One Storage Manager
Correct Answers: D

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NO.18 Which SAN switch management tool, previously only available as an embedded version, is now
separately available on CD?
A: Emulex EZpilot
B: McData HAFM
C: Cisco Fabric Manager
D: Brocade Fabric Watch
Correct Answers: C

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NO.19 A customer is expanding a SAN to 400 switch ports, but has limited rack space. Which single Director
switch model is recommended?
A: Cisco MDS 9509 Director
B: Cisco MDS 9513 Director
C: HP StorageWorks 4/500 SAN Director
D: HP StorageWorks 4/256 SAN Director
Correct Answers: B

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NO.20 Which tool would you use to quickly survey a SAN environment?
A: HP SAN Surveyor
B: HP SAN Designer
C: HP CommandView
D: HP SAN Visibility Tool
Correct Answers: D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M23
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Business Availability Center Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 In a typical organization, who manages the troubleshooting of IT infrastructure?
A.BAC Administrator
B.IT Service Manager
C.Application Manager
D.Operations Engineer
ANSWER: D

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NO.2 What types of System Health are available?
A.only the BAC built-in System Health is available
B.Operations Center System Health and BAC built-in System Health
C.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Sitescope
D.BAC built-in System Health and enhanced System Health based on Real User Monitor
ANSWER: C

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NO.3 Which log files are used for troubleshooting SiteScope?
A.Alert, Error and Topaz_all.ejb
B.Run Monitor, HP BAC and Operator
C.Run Monitor, SiteScope_all and Operator
D.Topaz_all.ejb, NannyStatus and Jboss_boot
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 What is the meaning of the origin attribute that exists in each CI?
A.the BAC user that created the CI
B.the view in which the CI was created
C.the package from which the CIT was deployed
D.the data source or user that added the CI to the CMDB
ANSWER: D

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NO.5 Which alert type can be configured to alert on a specific page, or screen, of a monitored application?
A.SLA alert
B.Paging alert
C.Sitescope alert
D.Event based alert
ANSWER: D

HP   HP0-M23   HP0-M23   HP0-M23

NO.6 How would you create a relationship between a CI and a Business Process Monitor when defining a
profile?
A.Use the instance view editor automatic CI attachment process.
B.Use the Monitor Deployment Wizard to automatically assign a monitor to a specific CI.
C.Create a profile and use the attach CI option in the EUM Administration profile creation operation.
D.Create a profile and run it, make sure the adapters are synced and then edit a view and attach the
monitor from within the view
ANSWER: C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of Infrastructure Settings?
A.to configure the hardware settings of the BAC servers
B.to configure the look and feel of the BAC graphical user interface
C.to define the various settings which determine how BAC and its applications run
D.to configure the binding between BAC and the network interfaces on the BAC servers
ANSWER: C

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NO.8 What is a context in Infrastructure Settings?
A.the source application that triggers a set of alarms
B.a group of foundations to which the same settings can be applied
C.a group of applications to which the same settings can be applied
D.an aid to separate all BAC configurable items into applications and foundations
ANSWER: D

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NO.9 What is the purpose of the session analyzer report?
A.to correlate between sessions, session groups and session users
B.to display user session data for applications configured for real user monitoring
C.to show the history of all closed sessions which were opened against the application configured
D.to display the status of the users that are currently using the application which is being monitored
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 How are BPM monitoring locations determined? (Select two.)
A.by distant locations
B.by random selection
C.by high user populations
D.by lowest cost to implement
E.by high return on investment
ANSWER: CE

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the Downloads page?
A.a location from which you can download BAC components
B.a location to which you can download tools for use with BAC
C.links to locations from which you can download BAC add-on monitors
D.a location within the BAC directory structure where you can store downloaded software
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 What is the main function of the Report Repository?
A.store reports imported from other applications
B.store reports saved by users at a specific state
C.store reports saved by users with dynamic state
D.store reports specific to the Dashboard component of BAC
ANSWER: B

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NO.13 What does the data collector maintenance page in the Business Availability Center platform enable
you to do?
A.remotely install Sitescope instances on specific servers.
B.manage and maintain Sitescope, Business Process Monitor, and RUM
C.remotely install, manage and troubleshoot the operation of the Discovery Probe
D.manage and install Business Process Monitor and Real User Monitor probe instances on specific
servers
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 How do you navigate the user interface to enter a license in BAC?
A.Navigate to Admin>My BAC>License Management and enter a new license.
B.Accept the basic, built-in factory license as part of the installation phase of BAC.
C.Navigate to Help>About HP Business Availability Center>Registration and enter a new license.
D.Navigate to Admin>Platform Administration>Setup and Maintenance>License Management and enter
a new license.
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 What is the role of the built-in BAC System Health?
A.display in a dashboard view the status of all BAC components
B.measure BAC performance and display BAC resources consumption and usage
C.display in a graphical form all the components of BAC and the relationship between them
D.detect problems with data collectors, BAC database, and the servers on which BAC runs
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 Business Availability Center is powered by a set of servers that are responsible for facilitating system
management, data handling, reporting, and alerting. Which servers are included within the Business
Availability Center basic framework? (Select two.)
A.Print Server
B.Data Server
C.Gateway Server
D.Discovery Server
E.Application Server
F.Data Processing Server
ANSWER: CF

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NO.17 Which report types are available in the End User Management application?
A.Summary, Alerts, System Availability
B.User Defined, Business Process, Real User
C.Alerts, Network & Tools, Service Level, Business Process
D.Summary, Business Process, Real User, Status Snapshot
ANSWER: D

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NO.18 How can you navigate to the web interface of a data collector (for example, BPM, Sitescope or RUM
Engine) without knowing its explicit name or IP address?
A.Write a query on the UCMDB to locate the data collector name and IP address in order to access it.
B.Navigate to "Admin>Platform>Data Collection>Data Collector Maintenance" and select the appropriate
tab.
C.Navigate to "Admin>End User Management Administration>Monitor" and locate the BPM you have just
installed.
D.Navigate to "Admin>Universal CMDB Administration>Source Manager" and edit the data collector
adapter to list all appropriate data collectors.
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 How would you check the start-up status of BAC using the HP BAC Server Status?
A.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
B.in the web browser navigate to http://:8180/BACServerStatus.asp
C.on the gateway and the Data Processing server click on Start > Programs > HP BAC > Administration >
HP BAC Server Status
D.on the gateway and the Data Processing server navigate to \bin and activate the
HPBacServerStatus.exe program
ANSWER: C

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NO.20 What information does the Status Snapshot Report provide?
A.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
B.worst transaction response time, worst availability by location
C.worst availability by transaction, worst availability by location, worst availability by application, slowest
applications
D.worst response time by transaction, worst response time by location, worst response time by
application, slowest applications
ANSWER: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J29
Nom d'Examen: HP (Replication Solutions for the HP StorageWorks EVA)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 When implementing VMware Site Recovery Manager (SRM) in a Continuous Access EVA
environment, what is required in addition to the SRM software?
A.Replication Solution Manager host agent
B.HP EVAx000 VDS1.0 and VDS1.1/VSS Hardware Providers
C.HP StorageWorks EVA Virtualization Adapter
D.HP EVA VDS/VSS 2.0 Hardware Providers
Correct:C

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NO.2 What is meant by the expression replication relationships = 3:1 in the HP StorageWorks
Enterprise Virtual Array Compatibility Reference Guide? (Select two.)
A.Using synchronous replication, a maximum of three hops between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
B.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have replicated volumes on three other Enterprise Virtual Arrays.
C.Three Enterprise Virtual Arrays may have replicated volumes on a fourth Enterprise Virtual Array.
D.Using asynchronous replication, a maximum of three links between any two Enterprise Virtual Arrays is
supported.
E.One Enterprise Virtual Array may have a single volume replicated to three other Enterprise Virtual
Arrays.
Correct:B C

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NO.3 Implementing N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV) in a SAN provides certain advantages. Which
statements are true about implementing such a solution? (Select two.)
A.NPIV is required if there is 2:1 or greater server-to-uplink ratio on a fully populated enclosure with 16
server blades.
B.You can only take advantage of NPIV when configured with HP Brocade SAN switches in C-Class
blade enclosures.
C.In large fabrics, NPIV helps to avoid exceeding domain count limits with multiple blade enclosures.
D.NPIV makes a single Fibre Channel port appear as multiple virtual ports, each having its own N_Port ID
and virtual WWN.
E.NPIV must be managed separately from the switches. However, it uses the common Fabric OS so that
it can be consistently managed with the
F.
Correct:C D

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NO.4 When building a six-fabric configuration using FC-to-IP, how many dedicated gateways are
required?
A.2
B.8
C.4
D.12
Correct:C

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NO.5 What is a demand allocated snapshot also known as?
A.replica snapshot
B.dynamic snapshot
C.instantaneous snapshot
D.virtual snapshot
Correct:D

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NO.6 A.What would you use to obtain a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of zero in failsafe mode and a low
B.performance impact?
C.a latency less than or equal to 10ms in enhanced asynchronous replication mode
D.a latency less than or equal to 120ms in asynchronous replication mode
E.a 4Gb/s link with low latency in synchronous replication mode
F.an 8Gb/s link with medium to high latency in synchronous replication mode
Correct:C

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NO.7 When designing EVA8100 and EVA4400 in a five-fabric 8-port to 4-port configuration, which ratio
of host ports to replication ports is supported?
A.1:4
B.2:4
C.3:1
D.4:2
Correct:C

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NO.8 A Windows server is running Command View and HP Replication Solutions Manager (RSM).
While executing an RSM replication script, it is rebooted by the addition of new security patches
from Microsoft. What happens to that script?
A.System shutdown is delayed until the replication script is finished.
B.Any snapshots and snapclones currently in progress are suspended.
C.Running replication tasks are queued and continued after the reboot.
D.The replication script is aborted and will require a manual restart.
Correct:C

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NO.9 A.Which functionality allows them to maintain a copy of the original Vdisk and, while in a normalized state,
is
B.automatically updated whenever the source Vdisk is updated?
C.synchronized mirrorclones
D.synchronous Continuous Access
E.synchronized containers
F.enhanced asynchronous Continuous Access
Correct:A

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NO.10 Which capabilities does HP StorageWorks EVA Dynamic Capacity Management Software
provide?
A.the ability to provision storage on the fly
B.the ability to monitor EVA Vdisks and DR groups
C.the ability to monitor Vdisk performance and relocate as required
D.the ability to grow and shrink volumes as required
Correct:D

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Code d'Examen: HP0-J19
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Storage Essentials SRM Standard Edition)
Questions et réponses: 66 Q&As

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NO.1 Which items are backed up during a database export? (Select three.)
A. appiq.log
B. CIMOM.log
C. tnsnames.ora
D. CIM repository
E. database schema
F. jboss configuration files
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 What do the capacity and utilization reports display?
A. host performance - CPU and memory usage
B. device utilization - a centralized view of capacity usage per system
C. file utilization - frequently used files and unused files which may be archived to tape or optical
media
D. storage utilization - thresholds set by administrators that provide notification when additional
storage capacity must be added
Answer: B

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NO.3 You set up event filtering in HP Systems Insight Manager. What is the result?
A. Events that do not pass the filter are lost.
B. Events that pass the filter trigger a notification.
C. Events that pass the filter are indicated by a filter symbol.
D. Events that do not pass the filter are hidden, but can be recalled.
Answer: A

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NO.4 HP Storage Essentials SRM Event Manager indicates several CIM_ERR_FAILED messages for
managed hosts. What is the most probable cause of this error?
A. WMI is not running.
B. CIM Extension is not functioning.
C. The firewall is preventing a connection.
D. The management server is not functioning.
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is required to generate the HP Storage Essentials SRM permanent license key?
A. client unique ID
B. server IP address
C. host serial number
D. client install checksum
Answer: A

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NO.6 In which authentication mode must a Microsoft SQL server database be to enable monitoring
and management from HP Storage Essentials SRM?
A. single
B. Windows
C. SQL server
D. mixed-mode
Answer: D

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NO.7 You are unable to discover Microsoft Exchange servers in HP Storage Essentials. What is the
most probable cause?
A. There is an incorrect static IP address.
B. There is an incompatible version of Exchange Server.
C. SMTP is not running and this is affecting Active Directory.
D. Stale DNS records are affecting Active Directory lookups.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which security types determine if you can modify elements within HP Storage Essentials SRM?
(Select two.)
A. role-based
B. user-based
C. zone-based
D. permission-based
E. organization-based
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 Which actions are required to reinitialize the HP Storage Essentials SRM database? (Select
three.)
A. Stop the AppStorManager Service.
B. Stop the AppWBEMManager Service.
C. Click the Create new database button.
D. Click the Re-initialize the Database button.
E. Enter the password for the SYSTEM account.
F. Enter the password for the DB_SYSTEM_USER account.
Answer: A,D,E

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Code d'Examen: HP0-Y18
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure Mobility Solutions)
Questions et réponses: 104 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a function of ProCurve Identity Driven Manager (IDM)?
A. It identifies which wireless users must associate to the wireless network.
B. It enables you to load different configuration files onto your ProCurve Mobility Infrastructure devices.
C. It guides you in creating policies that can be applied, through RADIUS, to either wired or wireless
users.
D. It adds special features to ProCurve Manager (PCM) for configuring radio and wireless security
settings.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You need to provide a wireless network for a small area that will require two access points.For this
wireless network, you want to support both 802. 11b/g and 802. 11a radios throughout the entire
coverage area.What would you choose?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with two Radio Port (RP) 210s
D. ProCurve Wireless LAN System with one RP 230 and one RP 210
Answer: B

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NO.3 What purpose does the second software image on the ProCurve AP 420 serve?
A. It allows you to choose two different images to load onto the AP.
B. It allows you to keep the last software image that was loaded onto the AP.
C. It provides a failsafe image in the event the primary image becomes corrupted.
D. It provides an alternate software version in the event the primary does not support your configuration.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Wireless networks present certain challenges.Which wireless network challenge does ProCurve
Mobility Infrastructure Solutions help you address?
A. Users are less productive when using a wireless connection.
B. 802. 11 standards do not provide any guidelines for Layer 2 roaming.
C. 802. 11 standards do not provide any encryption, so you must create VPN tunnels to each end station.
D. Multiple users connect to the network through the same AP, but access must be authorized for each
user.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The ProCurve AP 420 radio has one Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID), and each of the two AP 530
radios has 16 BSSIDs.What is the implication of this difference?
A. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 16.
B. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 32.
C. The AP 420 can support only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can support 16.
D. The AP 420 can advertise only 1 WLAN, but the AP 530 can advertise 32.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Your company has a branch office down the street from your main office.You want to connect the
networks between the two offices, and physical cabling is not an option.Which wireless devices should
you select for this environment?
A. two ProCurve AP 420s
B. two ProCurve AP 530s
C. two RP 230s and a Wireless Edge Services xl Module
D. two RP 220s with Yagi antennas and a Wireless Edge Services zl Module
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism do both the ProCurve AP 420 and the ProCurve AP 530
support?
A. Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM)
B. SpectraLink Voice Priority (SVP)
C. Differentiated Services (DiffServ)
D. Wi-Fi Multimedia Extensions (WME)
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want ProCurve Radio Port (RP) 1's radio to function as a neighbor for RP 2's radio.RP 1 will
monitor RP 2 and take action if RP 2 becomes unavailable.You configure RP 1's radio to take which
action if RP 2 becomes unavailable? (Select two. )
A. Open its data rates.
B. Change the radio's channel.
C. Increase the radio's transmit power.
D. Order stations associated with RP 2 to roam.
E. Change the radio mode from 802. 11a to 802. 11b/g.
Answer: AC

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NO.9 The ProCurve Mobility Manager (PMM) site-planning tool provides an Auto Placement tool.What does
this tool take into account as it places devices on the floor plan?
A. the existing RF interference
B. the obstacles that you have defined
C. other devices already placed on the floor plan
D. the floor plan dimensions and desired capacity
Answer: D

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NO.10 How many configuration files can be stored on the ProCurve AP 420?
A. 2: the startup-config and the factory default config
B. 3: the startup-config, the factory default config, and one custom config
C. 3: the factory default config, the startup-config, and the backup startup-config
D. 4: the factory default config, the startup-config, the backup startup-config, and one custom config
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your company wants to use the 2. 4GHz frequency on both of your ProCurve AP 530 radios.What
must you do so that both radios can use this frequency?
A. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
B. Set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b, and install an external antenna for radio 2.
C. Install an 802. 11b/g card on radio 2, and set both radios to either 802. 11g or 802. 11b.
D. Set one radio to 802. 11g and one radio to 802. 11b, install an external antenna for radio 1, and
configure radio 1 to use an external antenna.
Answer: B 18. Which ProCurve AP 530 feature is most beneficial for a small to medium business that has
strong security needs?
A. It monitors for excessive probes to detect possible intrusion attempts.
B. Its internal RADIUS server provides standalone support for 802. 1X authentication.
C. Unlike the ProCurve AP 420, it can operate all 16 of its wireless LANs in closed system.
D. It supports 802. 11a, and hackers generally do not check for networks on this frequency.
Answer: B

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19. A network administrator accesses the Marketing WLAN, which is assigned to VLAN 32 on the
ProCurve AP 530.When the AP 530 submits the administrator's login credentials to the RADIUS server,
the RADIUS server returns a dynamic VLAN assignment of 10 to the AP 530.The AP 530 is using the
default settings for dynamic and static VLAN support. In which VLAN does the AP 530 place the network
administrator's traffic?
A. 32, because dynamic VLANs are disabled by default
B. the default management VLAN, because there is a VLAN conflict
C. 10, because dynamic VLAN assignments override static VLAN assignments
D. 32, because static VLAN assignments override dynamic VLAN assignments
Answer: C

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20. You are configuring a WLAN on the ProCurve AP 420.When students, faculty members, and
administrators associate to the WLAN, you want them to receive the dynamic VLAN assignment for their
particular group.However, when staff members associate to the WLAN you want their traffic to be placed
in the VLAN that is assigned to the WLAN. How do you configure the AP 420 to support these VLAN
assignments?
A. You select the Dynamic VLAN option for the WLAN.Static VLANs are supported by default.
B. You select both the Static and Dynamic VLAN options.These global options apply to the entire AP 420.
C. You select the Enable VLAN option for the WLAN.This option enables support for both static and
dynamic VLANs on this WLAN only.
D. You select the Dynamic VLAN option, which enables both static and dynamic VLANs.This global
option applies to the entire AP 420.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What does Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) on the ProCurve AP 530 prevent?
A. loops over connections to stations in the wireless network
B. loops over the APs Ethernet and wireless bridge connections
C. loops over connections between stations in the wireless and the wired network
D. loops over connections between only wireless stations associated with multiple APs
Answer: B

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NO.13 What does the slot time determine?
A. the number of seconds the AP waits between sending beacons
B. the length of time the station waits between detecting a transmission and sending a frame
C. the beginning of the 802. 11 frame, which enables the AP and the station to synchronize their
transmissions
D. how long the station can "sleep" before it must become active and check the AP to see if there are any
transmissions waiting for it
Answer: B

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NO.14 What is the default management username and password on the ProCurve AP 530?
A. The username is admin, and the password is admin.
B. The username is admin, and the password is procurve.
C. The username is manager, and the password is procurve.
D. The username is admin, and there is no default password.
Answer: A

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NO.15 When can a station no longer communicate with an AP?
A. when the received signal falls below 0 dBm
B. when the received signal falls below the background noise
C. when the received signal falls below the station's receiver sensitivity
D. when the received signal falls below the fade margin for the wireless cell
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which security option was part of the original 802. 11 standard?
A. 802. 1X
B. Shared-key WEP
C. Dynamic Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)
D. Wi-Fi Protected Access with preshared keys (WPA-PSK)
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are configuring a ProCurve AP 530.You configure two WLANs.What is one reason to enable the
first WLAN only on radio 1 and the second WLAN only on radio 2?
A. to overcome environmental obstacles
B. to double the capacity of each WLAN by using two radios
C. to separate different types of wireless traffic into different collision domains
D. to allow users to choose their radio but still connect to the same Basic Service Set (BSS)
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-795
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProLiant Systems Management)
Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

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NO.1 You notice an increase in network traffic after modifying the SNMP settings for a device in Insight
Manager 7.What is the cause of this problem?
A. timeout value has been set too low.
B. Timeout value has been set too high
C. Retries setting has been set too low
D. Retries setting has been enabled
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have just added a new storage subsystem to your server. You need to update the Management
Agents to support the new storage system. When performing the update, which component or
components must be updated at a minimum?
A. Foundation Agents only
B. Server Agents only
C. Storage Agents only
D. Foundation Agents and Storage Agents
E. Server Agents and Storage Agents
Answer: C

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NO.3 What controls the number of devices Insight Manager will ping?
A. The subnet where Insight Manager 7 is installed
B. The specified inclusion range minus exclusions
C. The returned subnets
D. The contents of the server's active routing table
Answer: A

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NO.4 How is a list of clusters identified in Insight Manager 7?
A. Task list
B. Scope
C. Polling
D. Query
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which component of Management Agent collects information for the host server, including clustering
software version , and external MIB status?
A. Storage Agents
B. Server Agents
C. NIC Agents
D. Foundation Agents
Answer: D

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NO.6 What are valid Insight Manager 7 status levels? Select TWO.
A. Major
B. Offline
C. Online
D. Caution
E. Unknown
Answer: A, E

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NO.7 When you create a new server certificate within Insight Manager 7, when does the new certificate take
effect?
A. The next time you browse into Insight Manager 7.
B. The next time you browse into a device from a device link.
C. After the Insight Manager 7 service is restarted.
D. Immediately after you create the new certificate.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which application provides the latest information on hardware and preinstalled software changes for
HP
products?
A. Product Change Notification
B. Insight Manager 7
C. Availability Agents
D. Integration Server
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which Insight Manager 7 utility enables you to modify the default behavior of discovery and
identification?
A. Device Type Manager
B. External Links
C. SNMP Extensions
D. Paging Status
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which component of the Management Agents collects and displays clustering and software version
information?
A. Server Agents
B. Version Control Agents
C. Foundation Agents
D. Storage Agents
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which utility lets you send emails of specific Management Agent events to any email address?
A. Management EventNotifier
B. OS Management for Windows
C. SMTP Management Gateway
D. Winsock API
Answer: A

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NO.12 What is required to configure an SNMP manageable device using the Insight Manager 7?
A. Configure the trap destination to a server running Insight Manager 7.
B. Reassign the traps to Unknown.
C. Modify the MIB information.
D. Display the SNMP Extensions menu and make configuration change
Answer: A

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NO.13 What application is designed to help maximize server availability by streamlining the configuration
analysis and troubleshooting?
A. Management Agents
B. ActiveUpdate
C. Availability Agent
D. Survey Utility
Answer: D

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NO.14 What does Insight Manager 7 use to communicate with the database?
A. MSDE
B. ODBC
C. Node CMX
D. SSL
Answer: B

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NO.15 What type of information is collected during a single instance data collection in Insight Manager 7?
A. data detailing the device's log history
B. data that contains all device names
C. data detailing the device's access failure history
D. a snapshot of a device as new data become available.
Answer: D

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NO.16 When registering a MIB in Insight Manager 7. What is the default status of all traps?
A. Disabled
B. Erased
C. Stopped
D. Enabled
Answer: D

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NO.17 A server that was running at acceptable performance once week ago is now experiencing severs
performance problems. Which tools can be used to identify whether any changed were made to the
server's hardware configuration within the last week?
A. Version Control Repository Manager
B. Version Control Agents
C. Survey Utility
D. Management Toolkit
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which applications or components can be used to access Web-enabled Management Agents? Select
TWO.
A. Survey Utility
B. Browser
C. Management application
D. Availability agents
E. Configuration script
Answer: B, C

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NO.19 If you have a cluster service type that is not predefined in Insight Manager7.
What action should you perform?
A. Substitute the enterprise number and cluster type number for the service name.
B. Update the alert list and post a Cluster Monitor Extension.
C. Collect software and firmware information from the managed server.
D. Use the configured repository to define the cluster service.
Answer: A

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NO.20 There has been a catastrophic system failure and a loss of the Insight Manager 7 database. What can
you
do to quickly repopulate Insight Manager 7 with a list of managed devices?
A. Create and run an auto-discovery script
B. Import a backup hosts file
C. Enable HTTP Auto-Discovery and open a web page on each device to automatically add devices.
D. Enable SNMP Trap Auto-Discovery and trigger devices on your network to send SNMP traps.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: HP2-056
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP ProCurve Sales Professional)
Questions et réponses: 35 Q&As

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NO.1 This layer defines local hardware addresses and may use Ethernet to provide this
function.
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 2
C.Layer 3
D.Layer 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 All devices in a Local Area Network (LAN) are _______.
A. in the same broadcast domain
B. in separate transmission systems
C. connected by telephone lines
D.connected to a router
Answer: A

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NO.3 The original IEEE standard for Wireless LANswas802.11b.What is the only new
standard that is backwards compatible with 802.11b?
A.802.11a
B. 802.11i
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: A

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NO.4 What isTCP/IP?
A.the ability to provide both electrical power and network connectivity over the same
wire
B.the most common communication protocol
C. the implementation of Layers 1 and 2 of the OSI model
D.a network transceiver/converter
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which cable is most widely used for making network connections to the desktop today?
A.Thicknet
B. Fiber
C.Twisted pair
D.Thinnet
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A08
Nom d'Examen: HP (NonStop H-series Operating System Support)
Questions et réponses: 69 Q&As

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NO.1 Which task is performed by the DIVER program?
A.reading the SYSLOG file
B.interpreting EMS event messages
C.causing a specified processor to stop executing
D.preparing a hard disk to be formatted or renamed
Answer:C

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NO.2 What is Scout for NonStop Servers not used to do?
A.install an SPR
B.download an SPR
C.research prerequisites
D.display information about a product version
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which product version information is not displayed by a successful VPROC?
A.archive type
B.archive member
C.version procedure
D.GMT binder timestamp
Answer:A

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NO.4 PTRACE displays formatted header data at the beginning of each trace data record. What information is
not included?
A.total record count
B.delta time from the previous record
C.time the trace record was captured
D.date the trace record was captured
Answer:A

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NO.5 What can SNOOP be used to do?
A.determine the value of a password
B.display the content of an SNA frame
C.modify an SQL file undo-needed flag
D.display the memory contents of a running processor
Answer:C

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NO.6 Which INSPECT command resumes execution until the calling procedure is reached?
A.step in
B.step to
C.step out
D.step to caller
Answer:C

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NO.7 Which TFDS option automatically reloads a failed processor?
A.RELOAD
B.AUTOLOAD
C.EnableReload
D.AUTORELOAD
Answer:B

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NO.8 Which software and utilities are required in the system to use SQL/MP? (Select two.)
A.TS/MP
B.Parallel TCP/IP
C.FastSort software
D.NonStop Java Client
E.SQL conversational interface (SQLCI)
Answer:C E

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NO.9 The eGARTH tool is used to perform which task?
A.view event logs
B.process disk crashes
C.repair checksum errors
D.examine processor dumps
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which commands start INSPECT from a TACL prompt? (Select two.)
A.gtacl -p inspect
B.RUND program
C.INSPECT -START
D.RUN INSPECT or INSPECT
E.run -debug -inspect=on program
Answer:B D

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