2013年7月31日星期三

Le plus récent matériel de formation FileMaker FM0-304

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Code d'Examen: FM0-304

Nom d'Examen: FileMaker (Developer Essentials for FileMaker 10)

Questions et réponses: 191 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding tooltips? (Choose two.)
A. Tooltips will function in Find mode.
B. A tooltip can be attached to any FileMaker layout object.
C. Tooltip text can only incorporate field data that is stored.
D. A tooltip defined by the formula = $tooltip can only display its message when a script is running (or
paused).
E. Tooltips can only be created or modified using FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced, though they will function in
a file opened by FileMaker Pro 10.
Answer: AB

certification FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.2 Which two statements are true about windows in a FileMaker database? (Choose two.)
A. A given user may have a maximum of 100 windows open concurrently.
B. Creation of a new window will activate an OnLayoutLoad script trigger.
C. On the Windows platform, only the currently active window can be maximized.
D. The Adjust Window script step can be used to move a window to a location specified by a calculation
formula.
Answer: BC

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of recursive calls that can be made utilizing a custom function in
FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced?
A. 10,000
B. 32,000
C. 50,000
D. 64,000
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of files that can be hosted on FileMaker Server 10 Advanced?
A. 50
B. 100
C. 125
D. 250
E. 999
Answer: C

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304 examen   FM0-304 examen   FM0-304 examen

NO.5 Given the following formula:
Case (
PatternCount (Name ; " " ) > 2 ; RightWords (Name ; 2) ;
Position (Name ; " " ; 1 ; 1 ) > 0 ; LeftWords (Name ; 2) ;
MiddleWords (Name ; 2 ; 2)
)
If the field Name contains "John Q. Adams", what will the formula return?
A. John Q
B. John Q.
C. Q Adams
D. Q. Adams
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two events can activate an OnObjectModify script trigger? (Choose two.)
A. selecting a checkbox
B. scrolling in a portal
C. scrolling in a text field
D. switching tabs in a tab control
E. clicking a link displayed in a Web Viewer
Answer: AD

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NO.7 According to the FileMaker Server Configuration Guide, which two hard drive configurations are
considered acceptable best practices for storage of hosted databases? (Choose two.)
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0
C. RAID 1+0
D. RAID 5
Answer: CD

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304 examen

NO.8 What is the maximum size of a calculation formula, including text and numbers, any referenced fields,
operators, functions, and parentheses?
A. 1,024 characters
B. 8,000 characters
C. 16,000 characters
D. 30,000 characters
E. 32,000 characters
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement is true when a script is installed on a window using the Install OnTimer Script step?
A. The script can not operate on hidden windows.
B. The window must be closed to uninstall the script.
C. The script will run on any new window created from the initial window.
D. In a window with more than one installed script, the scripts will be performed in the order in which they
were installed.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What is the maximum theoretical file size for a FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 2 Gigabytes
B. 4 Gigabytes
C. 8 Gigabytes
D. 2 Terabytes
E. 8 Terabytes
Answer: E

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NO.11 What is the maximum allowable depth of the call stack at any point in a FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced
custom function?
A. 8,000 calls
B. 10,000 calls
C. 16,000 calls
D. 50,000 calls
Answer: B

FileMaker   FM0-304   certification FM0-304   FM0-304 examen

NO.12 Which two statements are true about the [Full Access] privilege set in a FileMaker Pro 10 database?
(Choose two.)
A. It must be assigned to at least one account.
B. It is the only privilege set that can use Custom Functions.
C. It is the only privilege set that can view the Relationships Graph.
D. It can be deleted only if another full access privilege set has been created.
Answer: AC

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NO.13 A FileMaker Pro 10 database contains the following two scripts:
Script A:
Set Variable [$$varFoo; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Perform Script ["Script B"; Parameter: $$varFoo / 2]
Show Custom Dialog [$$varFoo]
Script B:
Set Variable [$counterStart; Value:Get ( ScriptParameter)]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counterStart]
Set Variable [$x; Value:1]
Loop
Set Variable [$$varFoo, Value:$$varFoo + $x]
Set Variable [$x; Value:$x + 1]
Set Variable [$counter; Value:$counter-1]
Exit Loop If [$counter < .5 * $counterStart]
End Loop
Exit Script [Result:$$varFoo]
With a Script Parameter of 11 passed into Script A, what result is shown in the custom dialog when Script
A completes?
A. 11
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17
E. 34
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the theoretical maximum record count in FileMaker Pro 10 file?
A. 100 million records
B. 4 billion records
C. 8 trillion records
D. 64 quadrillion records
E. 128 quadrillion records
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is the maximum size of binary data that can be stored in a container field?
A. 1 gigabytes
B. 2 gigabytes
C. 4 gigabytes
D. 8 gigabytes
Answer: C

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NO.16 Given the following Relationships Graph:w0VFM10256Y The users want to view a list of unique product
records purchased by a found set of customers from the state of NY.
If the data in the system supports this request and there are no changes to the Relationships Graph,
which two techniques successfully accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. On a layout based on Customer, include a portal based on the Product table occurrence. Find where
State = "NY".
B. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Navigate to a layout based on the
Products table. Select the menu Records > Saved Finds and choose "NY" under Recent Finds.
C. On a layout based on Customer, Find where State = "NY". Then run a script with the step Go To
Related Records[ ], using Match all records in current found set to navigate to the desired set of Product
records.
D. Run a script from a special Customer layout that performs a Copy All Records/Requests[ ] script step,
then navigates to a Product layout including a Customer portal, uses Paste[ ] into a Find request, and
finally Perform Find[ ] to result in the desired found set.
E. Use a script to loop through the found set of Customer records, assembling a set of ID values into a
global variable $$customers. Navigate to a layout based on Products and in Find Mode enter the
Customer::State field. Choose the menu Requests > Paste Requests and specify State = $$customers.
Click OK to perform the Find.
Answer: BC

FileMaker   FM0-304   certification FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.17 Which two does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include? (Choose
two.)
A. user account Saved Finds criteria
B. ODBC driver information for external data sources
C. the file path lists for external FileMaker data sources
D. the IP addresses of the servers hosting external ODBC data sources
E. account names and passwords for the FileMaker file(s) being analyzed
F. user names and passwords assigned to DSNs used for external data sources
Answer: CF

FileMaker   certification FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.18 Which two techniques can be used to import a table and its record data from one FileMaker Pro file
to another using FileMaker Pro Advanced? (Choose two.)
A. Use the Import Records > File command and choose New Table as the Target.
B. Copy and paste a table occurrence from one relationship graph to the other.
C. Use the File Migration Tool from Solution Options in the Developer Utilities dialog.
D. Use the Import button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog to import the tables field
definitions, then use the Import Records > File command to import the record data.
E. Use the Copy button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the source database, then
use the Paste button on the Tables tab of the Manage Database dialog of the target database.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Using FileMaker Server 10, which two groups of ports must be open to provide database services,
web services, and administrative services via the Admin Console? (Choose two.)
A. 80, 5003, 16004
B. 80, 5003, 16000
C. 5003, 5006, 16014
D. 16001,16016, 16018
E. 16001, 16004, 16007
Answer: BD

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NO.20 Which two statements are true in a FileMaker Pro 10 database containing scripts? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple changes to multiple scripts can be saved using one operation.
B. Edits to a script can be undone by closing the script's Edit Script window without saving changes.
C. Running a script while other scripts have unsaved changes will cause all unsaved changes to be
reverted.
D. Closing the Manage Scripts window will prompt the user to save changes to the order or grouping of
scripts.
Answer: AB

FileMaker   FM0-304 examen   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.21 Which ports must be open when FileMaker Server 10 is on one machine to provide just database
services and full administration console functionality?
A. 5003,16000,16001
B. 5006, 16000,16001
C. 80, 5003,16000,16001
D. 80, 5006,16001,16004
E. 591, 5006,16001,16004
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which three are capabilities of the Save Records as PDF script step? (Choose three.)
A. append to existing PDF
B. specify email recipients
C. create a "PDF Form" document
D. create a directory to export a PDF document into
E. create a PDF based on a layout with a blank record
F. specify a PDF name by referencing a variable ($variable)
Answer: AEF

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NO.23 Which three must be enabled when using FileMaker Server 10 and Web publishing on 64-bit editions
of the Windows operating system? (Choose three.)
A. ISAPI filters
B. ISAPI extensions
C. Deployment Assistant
D. Windows Addressing Mode to 32-bit only
E. Enable 32-bit mode in FileMaker Server Admin Console
F. Application pooling compatibility with 32-bit applications
Answer: ABF

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NO.24 A script saves a group of records as a PDF. The resulting file needs to be saved on a user's desktop
and the filename must contain that person's name along with the current date (without additional user
input).
How should the output file be specified in the script step?
A. Use a file path that references a variable containing the desired filename and path.
B. Use a file path that references a globally stored field containing the desired filename and path.
C. Use a file path defined by a calculation formula that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
D. Use a file path that references a calculation field that uses both Get (DesktopPath) and the Get
(UserName) functions.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.25 Which five operating systems are supported for FileMaker Server 10 and FileMaker Server 10
Advanced? (Choose five.)
A. Mac OS X 10.5.4
B. Mac OS X Server 10.4.9
C. Mac OS X Server 10.4.11
D. Windows XP Professional SP2
E. Windows Vista Business SP1
F. Windows NT Server SP4
G. Windows Server 2003 Standard Edition SP2
H. Windows Server 2008 Standard Edition SP1
Answer: ACEGH

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NO.26 A table in a FileMaker Pro 10 database has a field CompanyName of type Text. The following field
validation options are set for this field:
Validate data in this field only during data entry
Allow user to override during data entry
Require not empty
Display custom message if validation fails
A user imports a set of records into this table. Some records have no value in the CompanyName field.
What will occur?
A. All of the records will be imported. No error message will be displayed.
B. All of the records will be imported. The user will also see the custom error message.
C. None of the records will be imported. The user will also see the specified custom error message.
D. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will also see the specified
custom error message.
E. All records with a value for CompanyName will be imported. The user will see an error dialog from the
FileMaker Pro application stating that some records could not be imported due to errors, along with a
count of those records.
Answer: A

FileMaker   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304 examen

NO.27 Which two statements are true if two windows in a FileMaker Pro 10 database display records based
on the same layout? (Choose two.)
A. If a record is being edited in one window, it cannot be edited in the other window.
B. A find performed in one window will be available as a Recent Find in the other window.
C. If a new record is created in one window, it will become the active record in both windows.
D. If a custom menu set is installed in one window, it will become the active menu set in the other window
as well.
Answer: AB

FileMaker examen   FM0-304   FM0-304   FM0-304

NO.28 Which three does the HTML Database Design Report in FileMaker Pro 10 Advanced include?
(Choose three.)
A. a script triggers section
B. conditional formatting settings
C. object line, fill and effect settings
D. resizable layout object anchoring settings
E. the visibility status of fields in Table View
F. Text, Number, Date, and Time field formatting settings
Answer: BDE

FileMaker   FM0-304 examen   FM0-304 examen

NO.29 What is a reason to use the Let() function in a formula for a FileMaker Pro 10 calculation field?
A. to limit the iterations of a Loop() function used in the formula
B. to modify data in a text field referenced elsewhere in the formula
C. to define a custom function that can be used in other calculation formulas
D. to set a global variable $$var that can be used elsewhere (e.g. within a script)
Answer: D

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NO.30 A script executed by a FileMaker Server schedule running on a Windows server exports a group of
records to a tab-delimited file. The resulting file needs to be saved to the FileMaker Server Documents
folder and the filename must contain a current timestamp appended to the word orders_ (e.g.
orders__02042009065656.tab).
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at:
C:\Users\Administrator\Documents.
B. Assuming a default installation of FileMaker Server, the resulting file will be located at: C:\Program
Files\FileMaker\FileMaker Server\Data\Documents.
C. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
D. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a calculation field with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( DocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentTimeStamp );
"0123456789")
& ".tab".
E. When specifying the output file, use a file path that references a variable with the following
value:"filewin:" & Get ( ServerDocumentsPath ) & "orders_" & Filter ( Get ( CurrentServerTimeStamp );
"0123456789") & ".tab".
Answer: BC

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XML Master meilleur examen I10-002, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: I10-002

Nom d'Examen: XML Master (XML Master: Professional V2)

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following correctly describes the DOM (Level 2) Node interface?
A. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM element node (Element)
B. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM element node (Element)
C. The Node interface can be used to change the value (nodeValue) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
D. The Node interface can be used to change the name (nodeName) of the DOM attribute node (Attr)
Answer: C

XML Master   certification I10-002   I10-002

NO.2 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML Document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<ZZZ><YYY>lmnop</YYY></ZZZ>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " //root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:include href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:import href="exam.xsl" />
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<AAA><BBB><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></BBB></AAA>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
[exam.xsl]
<xsl:stylesheet version= " 1.0 " xmlns:xsl= " http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform " >
<xsl:template match= " root " >
<ZZZ><YYY><xsl:value-of select= " data " /></YYY></ZZZ>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: A

XML Master   I10-002   I10-002   I10-002

NO.3 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<root><data>lmnop</data></root>
Assume that the "XML document" is changed to the "Results XML Document." Select which XSLT style
sheet correctly performs the transformation.
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
[Results XML Document]
<lmnop/>
Or
<lmnop></lmnop>
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="<xsl:value-of select='.'/>"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="{ . }"/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:element name="."/>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " root/data " />
</xsl:template>
<xsl:template match= " data " >
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no"><</xsl:text>
<xsl:value-of select="."/>
<xsl:text disable-output-escaping="no">/></xsl:text>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: B

XML Master   I10-002   I10-002

NO.4 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
Select which of the following correctly describes the output results of an XSLT transformation of the "XML
Document" using the "XSLT Style Sheet".
Note that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document. Line feeds and indents
are not reflected.
A. <record>
<data>100</data>
</record>
B. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
</record>
C. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
</record>
D. <record>
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
E. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data>100</data>
<data>70</data>
</record>
F. <record xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:test">
<data xmlns= "" >100</data>
<data xmlns= "" >70</data>
</record>
Answer: F

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NO.5 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
[XML Document]
<TestML xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<record level="1" data="100" />
<record level="2" data="250" />
</TestML>
Choose the XML Schema Document that does not correctly define the structure of the "XML Document".
A. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" tns:testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" tns:record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" tns:recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
B. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
C. <xs:schema
xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml" >
<xs:element name="TestML" type=" testmlType " />
<xs:complexType name="testmlType">
<xs:sequence>
<xs:element ref=" record " maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</xs:sequence>
</xs:complexType>
<xs:element name="record" type=" recordType " />
<xs:complexType name="recordType">
<xs:attribute name="level" type="xs:int" />
<xs:attribute name="data" type="xs:int" />
</xs:complexType>
</xs:schema>
D. <schema
xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"
targetNamespace="urn:xmlmaster:testml"
xmlns:tns="urn:xmlmaster:testml">
<element name="TestML" type="tns:testmlType" />
<complexType name="testmlType">
<sequence>
<element ref="tns:record" maxOccurs="unbounded" />
</sequence>
</complexType>
<element name="record" type="tns:recordType" />
<complexType name="recordType">
<attribute name="level" type="int" />
<attribute name="data" type="int" />
</complexType>
</schema>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following describes the most correct call order of the ContentHandler interface methods
when parsing the following "XML Document" using a non-validating SAX parser? This question reflects
line feeds within the XML document.
[XML Document]
<a>
<b>
c
</b>
</a>
A. startDocument - startElement - characters - startElement - characters - characters - characters -
endElement - characters - endElement - endDocument
B. startDocument - startElement - ignorableWhitespace - startElement - ignorableWhitespace -
characters - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - ignorableWhitespace - endElement - endDocument
C. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - endElement - endElement - endDocument
D. startDocument - startElement - startElement - characters - characters - endElement - endElement -
endDocumentW
Answer: A

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NO.7 What must you write in XSLT style sheet (1) to process the following "XML Document" and obtain the
following "transform results"? Select the correct answer below. Note that "#" indicates a line feed, and "=*"
indicates a tab.
Assume that the XSLT processor can output transformation results as a document.
A. Nothing needs to be written.
B. <xml:space="preserve"/>
C. <xsl:preserve-space elements="content"/>
D. <xsl:strip-space elements="doc body"/>
Answer: D

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NO.8 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document 1" and "XML Document 2," and process
XML using "DOM Processing."
Select which of the following is the most appropriate expression of the results under XML 1.0. Line feeds
and/or indents are not reflected in the results.
A. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " >string value</data>
</root2>
B. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data>string value</data>
</root2>
C. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data xmlns= " urn:xmlmaster:EX1 " />
</root2>
D. <root2 xmlns="urn:xmlmaster:EX2">
<data/>
</root2>
Answer: A

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NO.9 Push the Exhibit Button to load the referenced "XML Document".
Assume that the character "3" is obtained from the "XML document". Select which XSLT style sheet
correctly performs the transformation. (Multiple answers possible. Select two.)
A. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[x='1'][y='2'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[(attribute::x='1') and (text()='3')] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[self='3'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match= " / " >
<xsl:apply-templates select= " //data[self::*='3'] " />
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: BD

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NO.10 Select which of the following correctly describes WSDL. (WSDL 1.1)
A. WSDL assumes SOAP as the message transmission form
B. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then
encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" must be designated
C. When WSDL is defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="encoded", then the encodingStyle
attribute cannot be designated
D. WSDL may be defined by a combination of style="rpc" and use="literal"
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: VCA410-DT

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Associate - Desktop)

Questions et réponses: 178 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three error states are reported by View Administrator in the Problem Desktops tab? (Choose
three.)
A. persistent disk offline
B. replica not responding
C. stuck in provisioning
D. report ready, but not accepting connections
E. powered on but not responding
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.2 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that under Problem Desktops,
there is one desktop identified as Agent Unreachable.
What does this desktop status indicate?
A. The desktop server service is disabled.
B. The desktop messenger service is unable to send messages to the Agent.
C. The desktop firewall service is blocking ports needed by the Agent.
D. The desktop network service is disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Startup.
Which two conditions does this status indicate? (Choose two.)
A. The display protocol has started.
B. The View Agent has started.
C. The View Agent is still starting.
D. The display protocol is still starting.
Answer: B,D

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NO.4 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and notices that a desktop is Checked
Out.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is locked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
B. The desktop is unlocked on the physical client system and active on the remote system.
C. The desktop is locked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
D. The desktop is unlocked on the remote system and active on the physical client system.
Answer: C

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NO.5 How can an administrator inform a pool user that a recompose will take place?
A. click on Users and Groups > select pool > click Send Message
B. click on Pools > select their pool > click Sessions tab > highlight user > click Send Message
C. click on Pools > highlight their pool > click More Commands > choose Send Message
D. click on Global Settings > click Edit > check Display warning before recompose > enter a message
Answer: B

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NO.6 A user reports being unable to log in to his remote desktop. The administrator needs to identify the root
cause of this issue.
Which two fields in View Administrator will assist with identifying the state of the desktops? (Choose two.)
A. Remote Session > Session State
B. Help Desk > Session State
C. Desktops > Status
D. Problem Desktops > Status
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 Which third-party tool can be used to store event data after it has been cycled off of the Dashboard?
A. Microsoft Excel
B. Crystal Reports
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. MySQL
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator goes to View Administrator on the Connection Server CS1 and looks through the
Events to see if there are any errors. The administrator sees the following error:
Provisioning error occurred for Machine Desktop1: Customization error due to no network communication
between the View agent and the Connection Server.
According to the View Administrator Guide, what are two recommended troubleshooting steps that can be
taken to address this issue? (Choose two.)
A. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet CS1 4001
B. go to Desktop1 and do a telnet Desktop1 4001
C. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup Desktop1
D. go to Desktop1 and do a nslookup CS1
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 In a new floating linked-clone pool, a desktop shows a status of Provisioned.
What does this indicate?
A. The desktop is powered off and has been created, but needs to be customized.
B. The desktop is powered on and has been created, but needs to be customized.
C. The desktop is powered off and has been created and customized.
D. The desktop is powered on and has been created and customized.
Answer: C

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NO.10 In the View Administrator Dashboard, what does a gray question mark beside Other Components -
Domains indicate?
A. The domain is Active Directory 2008-based.
B. The domain is LDAP-based.
C. The domain is Active Directory 2000-based.
D. The domain is Kerberos-based.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, what does the number next to the red exclamation mark indicate?
There are three problem events recorded.
A. There are three problems.
B. There are three potential problems.
C. There are three warning events recorded.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An administrator goes to Desktops on the View Administrator and notices a status of Provisioning.
What does this status most likely indicate?
A. The desktop is being customized by Sysprep.
B. The desktop is being customized by Quickprep.
C. The desktop is being created by the vCenter Server.
D. The desktop is being validated by the Security Server.
Answer: C

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NO.13 An administrator needs to update a single desktop in a pool and prohibit the user from logging in to the
desktop while updating it.
After going to the Inventory page of the pool and selecting the desktop, what must the administrator do to
ensure the user is unable to log in to the desktop?
A. choose Enter Maintenance Mode
B. choose Send Message
C. choose Disconnect Session
D. choose Logoff Session
Answer: A

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NO.14 A View administrator wants to programmatically determine Desktop entitlements for a user in a script.
What is the correct syntax to query user data with vdmadmin?
A. vdmadmin -U domainuser
B. vdmadmin -U -u domainuser
C. vdmadmin -U: domainuser
D. vdmadmin -User domainuser
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
A user is experiencing difficulties connecting to her desktop.
Based on the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the user being unable to log in?
The desktop is suspended.
A. The administrator is already logged in.
B. The user is already logged in.
C. The desktop is off.
Answer: B

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NO.16 An administrator goes to the View Administrator Dashboard and sees a red arrow beside the Transfer
Server. The administrator verifies that the Transfer Server can be pinged by the DNS name. The arrow
beside the Transfer Server in the Dashboard remains red.
What does the red arrow indicate in this situation?
A. The Transfer Server service is down.
B. The Transfer Server web service is down.
C. The Transfer Server is powered off.
D. The Transfer Server repository is offline.
Answer: A

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NO.17 View Administrator shows a desktop pool with 100 remote and 20 local sessions displayed.
What does this indicate.?
A. The pool has 20 sessions available for local users.
B. The pool has 120 users with sessions.
C. The pool has 120 sessions available for users.
D. The pool has 100 active sessions and 20 sessions available for users.
Answer: B

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NO.18 In a Dedicated pool, a desktop shows a status of Configuration Error.
What does this indicate?
A. The display protocol is not enabled.
B. The display protocol is enabled.
C. The pool is not enabled.
D. The pool is enabled.
Answer: A

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NO.19 An administrator accesses the View Administrator Console Dashboard and sees a Desktop with the
error:
Customization operation timed out
What is the most likely cause of the error?
A. The datastore containing the virtual machine has been formatted for NTFS.
B. The datastore containing the virtual machine has the block size set too high.
C. The datastore containing the virtual machine has an NFS mount.
D. The datastore containing the virtual machine has run out of space.
Answer: D

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NO.20 What does the yellow double arrow indicate when monitoring within the Dashboard > System Health >
View components pane?
A. agent issue
B. low performance
C. alert
D. warning
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: VCP410-DT

Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 4 - Deskto)

Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 A company opens a new remote office with five PCoIP-enabled thin clients. The administrator
configures the clients to connect to the View Security Server installed at headquarters.
Which setting must the administrator configure on the View Security Server to make sure PCoIP is routed
to the internal network?
A. PCoIP External URL
B. PCoIP Gateway URL
C. PCoIP Gateway Address
D. External URL
Answer: A

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NO.2 Following a recent upgrade to the View environment to View 4.6, the option to set the PCoIP External
URL of the Security Server is not available from View Administrator.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The View Security Server was not upgraded to version 4.6.
B. The External URL should have been set during the installation of the View Security Server.
C. The View Security Server service is not running on the View Connection Server.
D. The External URL was not configured from the View Security Server Management Interface.
Answer: A

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NO.3 To use previously created desktop virtual machines, which type of desktop pool should the View
administrator create?
A. automated desktop pool
B. manual desktop pool
C. persistent desktop pool
D. custom desktop pool
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)
A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator
B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system
C. register View Composer service on the Windows system
D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A proposed configuration of three Replica Servers is shown.
What can result from this configuration?
A. Multiple ADAM instances can cause a performance problem.
B. Three Replica Servers can result in client connection problems.
C. Multiple connections to Active Directory can cause a performance problem.
D. Replication over WAN connections can cause inconsistencies in the LDAP database.
Answer: D

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NO.6 A system administrator needs to create an application repository for ThinApp deployments from the
View Administrator.
Which two items are required in order to complete this task? (Choose two.)
A. Windows network share
B. ThinApp distribution point
C. NFS datastore
D. ThinApp MSI files
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 A system administrator is deploying a legacy ThinApp package to production users when the original
install media for the legacy application disappears.
Which ThinApp feature will enable the system administrator to perform an update to an existing ThinApp
package, integrate the update with the original ThinApp project, and then deploy the update across all
users?
A. Side by Side update
B. SBmerge
C. ThinApp Merge
D. AppSync
Answer: B

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NO.8 A university has implemented VMware View for classroom labs around the campus. The View
administrator needs to ensure that students only print to the printer located in the lab. Each lab has a
dedicated printer.
Which View feature meets these requirements?
A. ThinPrint-based printing
B. Location-based printing
C. Central-based printing
D. Local-based printing
Answer: B

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NO.9 A new Connection Server has been added to the View environment. View administrators and clients
cannot connect to that new Connection Server. However, connectivity to the pre-existing Connection
Servers remains active.
Which three configurations should be verified to diagnose the problem.? (Choose three.)
A. that you can connect directly to the new Connection Server using telnet on port 80
B. that the View Connection Server services are running on the newly added Connection Server
C. that the IP address for the new Connection Server has not changed on the server or within DNS
D. that the Security Server associated with the Connection Server is running
E. that the vCenter Server system associated with the Connection Server is running
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which two ports must be opened in the firewall to enable communication between a Security Server and
a Connection Server? (Choose two.)
A. 4001
B. 8443
C. 3389
D. 8009
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 A new SSL certificate has been installed on the View Security Server.
Which step must be completed to ensure that the Security Server uses the new certificate?
A. restart the VMware View Connection Server service
B. restart the VMware View Security Server service
C. start the newly created SSL_Certificate service
D. edit the locked.properties file to enable the new SSL certificate
Answer: B

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NO.12 A customer provides a list of requirements for the virtual desktop environment for consideration during a
pre-implementation discussion.
Which three customer requirements will be satisfied by the View Connection Server in its role as a
connection broker? (Choose three.)
A. user authentication
B. desktop provisioning
C. connection negotiation between the client and the virtual desktop
D. desktop assignment, if available
E. USB redirection
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 A user attempts to connect to a desktop from outside of the corporate network through a View 4.5
Security Server, but for several seconds sees only a black screen that is followed by an error message
from the View Client that indicates The connection to the remote computer ended.
What is the likely cause of this error?
A. The Security Server is not configured to accept PCoIP connection remotely.
B. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set to an incorrect address.
C. The VPN connection was not established prior to the user connecting to the View environment.
D. The External URL for the VMware Security Server is set using an incorrect port.
Answer: C

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NO.14 A View administrator needs to distribute ThinApp packages from a newly created ThinApp repository.
The corresponding ThinApp package has been set with the streaming option.
Which three ThinApp specific items will be stored inside the corresponding application repository?
(Choose three.)
A. the ThinApp sandbox for the corresponding ThinApp package
B. the .EXE file for the corresponding ThinApp package
C. the .DAT file for the corresponding ThinApp package
D. the .MSI file containing the shortcut
E. a shortcut to the ThinApp package on the network share
Answer: B,C,D

VMware   VCP410-DT   VCP410-DT

NO.15 What are the virtualization software requirements for View Connection Server?
A. vSphere 4.0 Update 2 or vSphere 4.1
B. vSphere 4.0 Update 1 or vSphere 4.1
C. VMware Infrastructure 3.5 Update 4 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 5 D. VMware Infrastructure
3.5 Update 3 and VirtualCenter Server 2.5 Update 3
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on VI4 (VCP-410日本語版))

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NO.1 ESXi 4.x のデフォルト? スワップパーテゖションのサ゗ズは、次のどれですか。
A. 544MB
B. 4GB
C. 600MB
D. 1.6GB
Answer: B

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NO.2 ESX 4.x の゗ンストールを実行するときは、 サービス? コンソール? フゔ゗ル? システ ムの
有効な場所は次のどれですか(二つ選んでください)?? 。
A. 共有 VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖスク内。
B. SAN デゖスク上の ESX ホストのみにマスクされた VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デ
ゖスク内。
C. ローカルストレー ジにある ext3 フゔ゗ルシステム内。
D. ローカルストレー ジ上の VMFS データス トゕに配置された仮想デゖ スク内。
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 管理者は、 SAN から起動する 10 台の ESX 4.x ホストのために、 VMFS および vmkcore パ
ーテゖションを提供する単一の SAN ボリュームを設定しています。
vmkcore パーテゖションが 10 台のホストを サポートするために、このボリューム上に存在
する必要がある最小サ゗ズはどのくらいですか。
A. vmkcore パーテゖシ ョンは、ローカルストレージに格納する必要があります
B. 1GB
C. 2GB
D. 500MB
Answer: B

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NO.4 次の機能のうち どれが vSphere Advanced Edition の一部ではな いのですか。
A. VMware High Availability
B. VMware Fault Tolerance
C. VMware DRS
D. VMware vShield Zones
Answer: C

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NO.5 ゕドバンスラ゗ センスで使用できるソケットあたりのコゕの最大数は何ですか。
A. 6
B. 12
C. 16
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.6 vCenter Server 4.x を゗ンストールする場合、 ラ゗センスはどこで維持されますか (二つ
選んでください) 。
A. ESXi ホ スト上
B. ラ゗センスサーバ ー内
C. vCenter Server デー タベースで
D. vCenter Server マシ ンのラ゗センスフゔ゗ル内
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 管理者は、 サー ビスコンソールのメモリ要件を増加させる ESX 4.x ホスト上でサポート
される追加コンポーネントを゗ンストールする予定です。
この゗ンストールを実行することについて次のどれが本当ですか(二つ選んでください) 。
A.ESX ホストのメモリには、 CLI を使用して調整する必要があり、 再起動の必要がありません。
B.vmkcore パーテゖションは、追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
C. ホストのメモリは、vSphere Client または CLI を使用して調整する必要があるでしょう。そ
して、ESX ホストは再起動する必要があります。
D. スワップパーテゖションが追加のメモリー要件をサポートするために増加する必要があ
るでしょう。
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 次のタスクのど れが ESXi ホストのホーム· ページから選択することができますか (三つ
選んでください)??。
A. このホストの゗ンベントリのデータストゕを閲覧します。
B. vSphere 4 のドキュ メントを表示します
C. VMware vCenter Server をダウンロードします
D. VMware Web Access Client をダウンロード します。
E. このホストの゗ンベントリ内の仮想マシンを閲覧します。
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 管理者は物理サ ーバーに ESX 4.x を゗ンストールしています。
正常な゗ンストールをサポートするために、 次のコンポーネントのどれが変更されるま たは
交換される必要があるでしょうか。
A. 2 AMD Opteron CPUs
B. SATA disk controller
C. 1GB RAM
D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters
Answer: C

VMware   VCP-410-JP   VCP-410-JP

NO.10 次のストレージ· リソースのどれが ESX 4.x の゗ンストール時のみに作成されています
か(二つ選んでください) 。
A. vmkcore
B. swap
C. VMFS datastore
D. scratch
Answer: A,B

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Nom d'Examen: VMware (VMware Certified Professional 5 Data Center Virtualization (VCP5-DCV) Exam)

Questions et réponses: 326 Q&As

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NO.1 An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning
indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for
memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?
A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.
B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.
C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.
D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.
Answer: C

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NO.2 ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are
running
a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have
been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual
machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on
the host.
Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster
from this template? (Choose three.)
A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine
B. Move the swap file to a different location
C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore
D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts
E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.3 An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp. Which three options are
available?
(Choose three.)
A. Automatic
B. Roaming
C. Transient
D. DHCP
E. Fixed
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose
two.)
A. The host has multiple profiles attached.
B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.
C. The host is running virtual machines.
D. The host is an ESXi host.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and
finds that the current status is Not Protected.
What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be
protected? (Choose two.)
A. Stopped - Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.
B. Need Secondary VM - The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual
machine and is not protected
C. Need Primary VM - The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual
machine cannot be generated.
D. Disabled - Fault Tolerance is disabled.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which three Storage I/O Control conditions might trigger the Non-VI workload detected on
the
datastore alarm? (Choose three.)
A. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that does not support Storage I/O Control.
B. The datastore is on an array that is performing system tasks such as replication.
C. The datastore is utilizing active/passive multipathing or NMP (Native Multi-Pathing).
D. The datastore is storing virtual machines with one or more snapshots.
E. The datastore is connected to an ESX/ESXi 4.0 host that is not managed by vCenter.
Answer: A,B,E

VMware   VCP5-DCV   VCP5-DCV

NO.7 What are three valid objects to place in a vApp? (Choose three.)
A. Folders
B. Hosts
C. Resource pools
D. vApps
E. Virtual machines
Answer: C,D,E

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Code d'Examen: DP-022W

Nom d'Examen: Veritas (Data Protection Implementation for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)

Questions et réponses: 124 Q&As

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NO.1 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.2 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select "Manual
Backup"
B. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Backup NetBackup Catalog "
C. from the command line, run "bpbackup" with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run "bpbackupdb" with appropriate switches
Answer: B, D

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NO.3 Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B

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NO.4 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database
agent. Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In
addition, the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
Answer: C

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NO.5 The VERITAS device drivers have been installed on a Microsoft Windows server.
What must be done before configuring any devices?
A. run vmquery
B. run bpconfig
C. reboot the computer
D. restart NetBackup services
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup"
B. individually run "bprecover -1" against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability"
D. in the GUI, check the "Activity Monitor" for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.8 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
Answer: A, C

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NO.9 A disk-based storage unit must be created for use in a small number of backup
policies.
Which action is taken to ensure that this storage unit is used only by the intended
policies?
A. enable the "On demand only" option for the disk storage unit and target this specific
storage unit in each of the intended backup policies.
B. configure the disk storage unit as the destination storage unit in each of the intended
backup policies
C. add only the intended policies to the "Authorized Policies" tab of the storage unit
D. add the disk storage unit to a unique "Storage Unit Group" and target this specific
storage unit group in each of the intended backup policies
Answer: A

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NO.10 The master server host properties option "Free Browse" in the "General" tab will
allow ________.
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which directory path on the client can the client's patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
Answer: B

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NO.12 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these
systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a "Remote
Terminal" session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
"Host Properties", right-click and select "Client Install"
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as "Standard" or "Ms_windows-NT"
B.The policy must have "Collect true image restore information" and "with move
detection" selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the "Synthetic Backup" option
selected
Answer: A, B, D

Veritas   DP-022W   DP-022W

NO.14 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

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NO.15 An administrator planning a new NetBackup installation has 10,000 tapes in a single
library and 27 tape pools.
Which NetBackup feature allows automatic assignment of free tapes to any of the 27
pools when the pool runs out of tapes?
A. enabling a scratch pool
B. setting up bar code rules for each pool
C. turning on Media Multiplexing for each pool
D. enabling auto-assign media in the Universal Attributes tab
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two commands allow management of storage units through the command
line?(Choose two.)
A. bpstuadd
B. bpstulist
C. bpsturemove
D. bpstudelete
Answer: A, B

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NO.19 Which NetBackup command do you use to help verify NetBackup client
configuration and network connectivity?
A. Bpclntcmd -ip
B. Bpclntcmd -hn
C. Bpclntcmd -pn
D. Bpclntcmd -listall
Answer: C

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NO.20 You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B

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